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JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1

48 questions with answers and solutions.

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Physics 16 questions

1

Length, breadth and thickness of a strip having a uniform cross section are measured to be 10.5 cm, 0.05 mm, and 6.0 , respectively. Which of the following option(s) give(s) the volume of the strip in cm3 with correct significant figures:

  1. 3.2 10-5
  2. 32.0 10-6
  3. 3.0 10-5
  4. 3 10-5
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
2

A person sitting inside an elevator performs a weighing experiment with an object of mass 50 kg. Suppose that the variation of the height y (in m) of the elevator, from the ground, with time t (in s) is given by y=8 [1+ ( 2 tT ) ], where T=40 s. Taking acceleration due to gravity, g=10 m/s2, the maximum variation of the object's weight (in N) as observed in the experiment is

JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
3

A cube of unit volume contains 35 107 photons of frequency 1015 Hz. If the energy of all the photons is viewed as the average energy being contained in the electromagnetic waves within the same volume, then the amplitude of the magnetic field is 10-9 T. Taking permeability of free space 0=4 10-7 Tm/A, Planck's constant h=6 10-34 Js and = 227, the value of is

JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
4

A single slit diffraction experiment is performed to determine the slit width using the equation, bdD=m , where b is the slit width, D the shortest distance between the slit and the screen, d the distance between the mth diffraction maximum and the central maximum, and is the wavelength. D and d are measured with scales of least count of 1 cm and 1 mm, respectively. The values of and m are known precisely to be 600 nm and 3, respectively. The absolute error (in m) in the value of b estimated using the diffraction maximum that occurs for m=3 with d=5 mm and D=1 m is

JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
5

Consider an electron in the n=3 orbit of a hydrogen-like atom with atomic number Z. At absolute temperature T, a neutron having thermal energy kBT has the same de Broglie wavelength as that of this electron. If this temperature is given by T= Z2h2 2a02mNkB, (where h is the Planck's constant, kB is the Boltzmann constant, mN is the mass of the neutron and a0 is the first Bohr radius of hydrogen atom) then the value of is

JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
6

List-I shows various functional dependencies of energy (E) on the atomic number (Z). Energies associated with certain phenomena are given in List-II. Choose the option that describes the correct match between the entries in List-I to those in List-II.

  1. P → 4, Q → 3, R → 1, S → 2
  2. P → 5, Q → 2, R → 1, S → 4
  3. P → 5, Q → 1, R → 2, S → 4
  4. P → 3, Q → 2, R → 1, S → 5
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
7

The center of a disk of radius r and mass m is attached to a spring of spring constant k, inside a ring of radius R>r as shown in the figure. The other end of the spring is attached on the periphery of the ring. Both the ring and the disk are in the same vertical plane. The disk can only roll along the inside periphery of the ring, without slipping. The spring can only be stretched or compressed along the periphery of the ring, following the Hooke's law. In equilibrium, the disk is at the bottom of the ring. Assuming small displacement of the disc, the time period of oscillation of center of mass of the disk is written as T= 2 . The correct expression for is (g is the acceleration due to gravity): [figure]

  1. 23 ( gR-r+ km )
  2. 2g3(R-r)+ km
  3. 16 ( gR-r+ km )
  4. 14 ( gR-r+ km )
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
8

In a scattering experiment, a particle of mass 2m collides with another particle of mass m, which is initially at rest. Assuming the collision to be perfectly elastic, the maximum angular deviation of the heavier particle, as shown in the figure, in radians is: [figure]

  1. -1 ( 12 )
  2. 3
  3. 6
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
9

A conducting square loop initially lies in the XZ plane with its lower edge hinged along the X-axis. Only in the region y 0, there is a time dependent magnetic field pointing along the Z-direction, B(t)=B0( t) k, where B0 is a constant. The magnetic field is zero everywhere else. At time t=0, the loop starts rotating with constant angular speed about the X axis in the clockwise direction as viewed from the +X axis (as shown in the figure). Ignoring self-inductance of the loop and gravity, which of the following plots correctly represents the induced e.m.f. (V) in the loop as a function of time: [figure]

  1. [figure]
  2. [figure]
  3. [figure]
  4. [figure]
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
10

Figure 1 shows the configuration of main scale and Vernier scale before measurement. Fig. 2 shows the configuration corresponding to the measurement of diameter D of a tube. The measured value of D is: [figure]

  1. 0.12 cm
  2. 0.11 cm
  3. 0.13 cm
  4. 0.14 cm
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
11

A conducting square loop of side L, mass M and resistance R is moving in the XY plane with its edges parallel to the X and Y axes. The region y 0 has a uniform magnetic field, B=B0 k. The magnetic field is zero everywhere else. At time t=0, the loop starts to enter the magnetic field with an initial velocity v0 j m/s, as shown in the figure. Considering the quantity K= B02L2RM in appropriate units, ignoring self-inductance of the loop and gravity, which of the following statements is/are correct: [figure]

  1. If v0=1.5KL, the loop will stop before it enters completely inside the region of magnetic field.
  2. When the complete loop is inside the region of magnetic field, the net force acting on the loop is zero.
  3. If v0= KL10, the loop comes to rest at t= ( 1K ) ( 52 ).
  4. If v0=3KL, the complete loop enters inside the region of magnetic field at time t= ( 1K ) ( 32 ).
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
12

Consider a system of three connected strings, S1, S2 and S3 with uniform linear mass densities kg/m, 4 kg/m and 16 kg/m, respectively, as shown in the figure. S1 and S2 are connected at the point P, whereas S2 and S3 are connected at the point Q, and the other end of S3 is connected to a wall. A wave generator O is connected to the free end of S1. The wave from the generator is represented by y=y0 ( t-kx) cm, where y0, and k are constants of appropriate dimensions. Which of the following statements is/are correct: [figure]

  1. When the wave reflects from P for the first time, the reflected wave is represented by y= 1y0 ( t+kx+ ) cm, where 1 is a positive constant.
  2. When the wave transmits through P for the first time, the transmitted wave is represented by y= 2y0 ( t-kx) cm, where 2 is a positive constant.
  3. When the wave reflects from Q for the first time, the reflected wave is represented by y= 3y0 ( t-kx+ ) cm, where 3 is a positive constant.
  4. When the wave transmits through Q for the first time, the transmitted wave is represented by y= 4y0 ( t-4kx) cm, where 4 is a positive constant.
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
13

Two identical plates P and Q, radiating as perfect black bodies, are kept in vacuum at constant absolute temperatures TP and TQ, respectively, with TQ<TP, as shown in Fig. 1. The radiated power transferred per unit area from P to Q is W0. Subsequently, two more plates, identical to P and Q, are introduced between P and Q, as shown in Fig. 2. Assume that heat transfer takes place only between adjacent plates. If the power transferred per unit area in the direction from P to Q (Fig. 2) in the steady state is WS, then the ratio W0WS is [figure]

JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
14

A solid glass sphere of refractive index n= 3 and radius R contains a spherical air cavity of radius R2, as shown in the figure. A very thin glass layer is present at the point O so that the air cavity (refractive index n=1) remains inside the glass sphere. An unpolarized, unidirectional and monochromatic light source S emits a light ray from a point inside the glass sphere towards the periphery of the glass sphere. If the light is reflected from the point O and is fully polarized, then the angle of incidence at the inner surface of the glass sphere is . The value of is [figure]

JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
15

List-I shows four configurations, each consisting of a pair of ideal electric dipoles. Each dipole has a dipole moment of magnitude p, oriented as marked by arrows in the figures. In all the configurations the dipoles are fixed such that they are at a distance 2r apart along the x direction. The midpoint of the line joining the two dipoles is X. The possible resultant electric fields E at X are given in List-II. Choose the option that describes the correct match between the entries in List-I to those in List-II.

  1. P → 3, Q → 1, R → 2, S → 4
  2. P → 4, Q → 5, R → 3, S → 1
  3. P → 2, Q → 1, R → 4, S → 5
  4. P → 2, Q → 1, R → 3, S → 5
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
16

A circuit with an electrical load having impedance Z is connected with an AC source as shown in the diagram. The source voltage varies in time as V(t)=300 (400t) V, where t is time in s. List-I shows various options for the load. The possible currents i(t) in the circuit as a function of time are given in List-II. [figure] Choose the option that describes the correct match between the entries in List-I to those in List-II.

  1. P → 3, Q → 5, R → 2, S → 1
  2. P → 1, Q → 5, R → 2, S → 3
  3. P → 3, Q → 4, R → 2, S → 1
  4. P → 1, Q → 4, R → 2, S → 5
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1

Chemistry 16 questions

17

The heating of NH4NO2 at 60−70 °C and NH4NO3 at 200−250 °C is associated with the formation of nitrogen containing compounds X and Y, respectively. X and Y, respectively, are

  1. N2 and N2O
  2. NH3 and NO2
  3. NO and N2O
  4. N2 and NH3
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
18

The correct order of the wavelength maxima of the absorption band in the ultraviolet-visible region for the given complexes is

  1. [Co(CN)6]3- < [Co(NH3)6]3+ < [Co(NH3)5(H2O)]3+ < [Co(NH3)5(Cl)]2+
  2. [Co(NH3)5(Cl)]2+ < [Co(NH3)5(H2O)]3+ < [Co(NH3)6]3+ < [Co(CN)6]3-
  3. [Co(CN)6]3- < [Co(NH3)5(Cl)]2+ < [Co(NH3)5(H2O)]3+ < [Co(NH3)6]3+
  4. [Co(NH3)6]3+ < [Co(CN)6]3- < [Co(NH3)5(Cl)]2+ < [Co(NH3)5(H2O)]3+
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
19

One of the products formed from the reaction of permanganate ion with iodide ion in neutral aqueous medium is

  1. I2
  2. IO3-
  3. IO4-
  4. IO2-
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
20

Regarding the molecular orbital (MO) energy levels for homonuclear diatomic molecules, the INCORRECT statement(s) is(are)

  1. Bond order of Ne2 is zero.
  2. The highest occupied molecular orbital (HOMO) of F2 is σ-type.
  3. Bond energy of O2+ is smaller than the bond energy of O2.
  4. Bond length of Li2 is larger than the bond length of B2.
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
21

The pair(s) of diamagnetic ions is(are)

  1. La3+, Ce4+
  2. Yb2+, Lu3+
  3. La2+, Ce3+
  4. Yb3+, Lu2+
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
22

In an electrochemical cell, dichromate ions in aqueous acidic medium are reduced to Cr3+. The current (in amperes) that flows through the cell for 48.25 minutes to produce 1 mole of Cr3+ is . Use: 1 Faraday = 96500 C mol-1

JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
23

At 25 ℃, the concentration of H+ ions in 1.00 10-3 M aqueous solution of a weak monobasic acid having acid dissociation constant (Ka) of 4.00 10-11 is X 10-7 M. The value of X is . Use: Ionic product of water (Kw) = 1.00 10-14 at 25 ℃

JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
24

Molar volume (Vm) of a van der Waals gas can be calculated by expressing the van der Waals equation as a cubic equation with Vm as the variable. The ratio (in mol dm-3) of the coefficient of Vm2 to the coefficient of Vm for a gas having van der Waals constants a = 6.0 dm6 atm mol-2 and b = 0.060 dm3 mol-1 at 300 K and 300 atm is . Use: Universal gas constant (R) = 0.082 dm3 atm mol-1 K-1

JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
25

Considering ideal gas behavior, the expansion work done (in kJ) when 144 g of water is electrolyzed completely under constant pressure at 300 K is . Use: Universal gas constant (R) = 8.3 J K-1 mol-1 ; Atomic mass (in amu): H = 1, O = 16

JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
26

The monomer (X) involved in the synthesis of Nylon 6,6 gives positive carbylamine test. If 10 moles of X are analyzed using Dumas method, the amount (in grams) of nitrogen gas evolved is . Use: Atomic mass of N (in amu) = 14

JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
27

The correct match of the group reagents in List-I for precipitating the metal ion given in List-II from solutions, is

  1. P → 3; Q → 4; R → 2; S → 1
  2. P → 4; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 1
  3. P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 5
  4. P → 5; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 4
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
28

Consider the depicted hydrogen (H) in the hydrocarbons given below. The most acidic hydrogen (H) is

  1. [figure]
  2. [figure]
  3. [figure]
  4. [figure]
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
29

The major products obtained from the reactions in List-II are the reactants for the named reactions mentioned in List-I. Match each entry in List-I with the appropriate entry in List-II and choose the correct option.

  1. P → 2; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 3
  2. P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 1
  3. P → 5; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 2
  4. P → 5; Q → 4; R → 2; S → 1
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
30

For the reaction sequence given below, the correct statement(s) is(are) [figure] (In the options, X is any atom other than carbon and hydrogen, and it is different in P, Q and R)

  1. C−X bond length in P, Q and R follows the order Q > R > P.
  2. C−X bond enthalpy in P, Q and R follows the order R > P > Q.
  3. Relative reactivity toward SN2 reaction in P, Q and R follows the order P > R > Q.
  4. pKa value of the conjugate acids of the leaving groups in P, Q and R follows the order R > Q > P.
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
31

The reaction sequence given below is carried out with 16 moles of X. The yield of the major product in each step is given below the product in parentheses. The amount (in grams) of S produced is. [figure] Use: Atomic mass (in amu): H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, Br = 80

JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
32

Match the compounds in List-I with the appropriate observations in List-II and choose the correct option.

  1. P → 1; Q → 5; R → 4; S → 2
  2. P → 2; Q → 5; R → 1; S → 3
  3. P → 5; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 4
  4. P → 2; Q → 1; R → 5; S → 3
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1

Mathematics 16 questions

33

Let R denote the set of all real numbers. Let ai, bi R for i \1, 2, 3\. Define the functions f: R R, g: R R, and h: R R by f(x) = a1 + 10x + a2x2 + a3x3 + x4, g(x) = b1 + 3x + b2x2 + b3x3 + x4, h(x) = f(x+1) - g(x+2). If f(x) g(x) for every x R, then the coefficient of x3 in h(x) is

  1. 8
  2. 2
  3. -4
  4. -6
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
34

Three students S1, S2, and S3 are given a problem to solve. Consider the following events: U: At least one of S1, S2, and S3 can solve the problem, V: S1 can solve the problem, given that neither S2 nor S3 can solve the problem, W: S2 can solve the problem and S3 cannot solve the problem, T: S3 can solve the problem. For any event E, let P(E) denote the probability of E. If P(U) = 12, P(V) = 110, and P(W) = 112, then P(T) is equal to

  1. 1336
  2. 13
  3. 1960
  4. 14
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
35

Let R denote the set of all real numbers. Define the function f: R R by f(x) = cases 2 - 2x2 - x2 1x & if x 0, \ 2 & if x = 0. cases Then which one of the following statements is TRUE?

  1. The function f is NOT differentiable at x = 0
  2. There is a positive real number , such that f is a decreasing function on the interval (0, )
  3. For any positive real number , the function f is NOT an increasing function on the interval (- , 0)
  4. x = 0 is a point of local minima of f
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
36

Consider the matrix P = pmatrix 2 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 2 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 3 pmatrix. Let the transpose of a matrix X be denoted by XT. Then the number of 3 3 invertible matrices Q with integer entries, such that Q-1 = QT and PQ = QP, is

  1. 32
  2. 8
  3. 16
  4. 24
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
37

Let L1 be the line of intersection of the planes given by the equations 2x + 3y + z = 4 and x + 2y + z = 5. Let L2 be the line passing through the point P(2, -1, 3) and parallel to L1. Let M denote the plane given by the equation 2x + y - 2z = 6. Suppose that the line L2 meets the plane M at the point Q. Let R be the foot of the perpendicular drawn from P to the plane M. Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?

  1. The length of the line segment PQ is 9 3
  2. The length of the line segment QR is 15
  3. The area of PQR is 32 234
  4. The acute angle between the line segments PQ and PR is -1 ( 12 3 )
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
38

Let N denote the set of all natural numbers, and Z denote the set of all integers. Consider the functions f: N Z and g: Z N defined by f(n) = cases (n+1)/2 & if n is odd, \ (4-n)/2 & if n is even, cases and g(n) = cases 3 + 2n & if n 0, \ -2n & if n < 0. cases Define (g f)(n) = g(f(n)) for all n N, and (f g)(n) = f(g(n)) for all n Z. Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?

  1. g f is NOT one-one and g f is NOT onto
  2. f g is NOT one-one but f g is onto
  3. g is one-one and g is onto
  4. f is NOT one-one but f is onto
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
39

Let R denote the set of all real numbers. Let z1 = 1 + 2i and z2 = 3i be two complex numbers, where i = -1. Let S = \(x, y) R R : |x + iy - z1| = 2|x + iy - z2|\. Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?

  1. S is a circle with centre (- 13, 103 )
  2. S is a circle with centre ( 13, 83 )
  3. S is a circle with radius 23
  4. S is a circle with radius 2 23
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
40

Let the set of all relations R on the set \a, b, c, d, e, f\, such that R is reflexive and symmetric, and R contains exactly 10 elements, be denoted by S. Then the number of elements in S is .

JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
41

For any two points M and N in the XY-plane, let MN denote the vector from M to N, and 0 denote the zero vector. Let P, Q and R be three distinct points in the XY-plane. Let S be a point inside the triangle PQR such that SP + 5 SQ + 6 SR = 0. Let E and F be the mid-points of the sides PR and QR, respectively. Then the value of length of the line segment EFlength of the line segment ES is .

JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
42

Let S be the set of all seven-digit numbers that can be formed using the digits 0, 1 and 2. For example, 2210222 is in S, but 0210222 is NOT in S. Then the number of elements x in S such that at least one of the digits 0 and 1 appears exactly twice in x, is equal to .

JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
43

Let and be the real numbers such that x 0 1x3 ( 2 0x 11 - t2 dt + x x ) = 2. Then the value of + is .

JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
44

Let R denote the set of all real numbers. Let f: R R be a function such that f(x) > 0 for all x R, and f(x + y) = f(x)f(y) for all x, y R. Let the real numbers a1, a2, , a50 be in an arithmetic progression. If f(a31) = 64f(a25), and i=150 f(ai) = 3(225 + 1), then the value of i=630 f(ai) is .

JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
45

For all x > 0, let y1(x), y2(x), and y3(x) be the functions satisfying dy1dx - ( x)2y1 = 0, y1(1) = 5, dy2dx - ( x)2y2 = 0, y2(1) = 13, dy3dx - ( 2 - x3x3 )y3 = 0, y3(1) = 35e, respectively. Then x 0+ y1(x)y2(x)y3(x) + 2xe3x x is equal to .

JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
46

Consider the following frequency distribution: array|c|c|c|c|c|c|c|c| Value & 4 & 5 & 8 & 9 & 6 & 12 & 11 \ Frequency & 5 & f1 & f2 & 2 & 1 & 1 & 3 \ array Suppose that the sum of the frequencies is 19 and the median of this frequency distribution is 6. For the given frequency distribution, let denote the mean deviation about the mean, denote the mean deviation about the median, and 2 denote the variance. Match each entry in List-I to the correct entry in List-II and choose the correct option.

  1. (P) → (5), (Q) → (3), (R) → (2), (S) → (4)
  2. (P) → (5), (Q) → (2), (R) → (3), (S) → (1)
  3. (P) → (5), (Q) → (3), (R) → (2), (S) → (1)
  4. (P) → (3), (Q) → (2), (R) → (5), (S) → (4)
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
47

Let R denote the set of all real numbers. For a real number x, let [x] denote the greatest integer less than or equal to x. Let n denote a natural number. Match each entry in List-I to the correct entry in List-II and choose the correct option.

  1. (P) → (1), (Q) → (3), (R) → (2), (S) → (5)
  2. (P) → (2), (Q) → (1), (R) → (4), (S) → (3)
  3. (P) → (5), (Q) → (1), (R) → (4), (S) → (3)
  4. (P) → (2), (Q) → (3), (R) → (1), (S) → (5)
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1
48

Let w = i + j - 2 k, and u and v be two vectors, such that u v = w and v w = u. Let , , , and t be real numbers such that u = i + j + k, -t + + = 0, - t + = 0, and + - t = 0. Match each entry in List-I to the correct entry in List-II and choose the correct option.

  1. (P) → (2), (Q) → (1), (R) → (4), (S) → (5)
  2. (P) → (2), (Q) → (4), (R) → (3), (S) → (5)
  3. (P) → (2), (Q) → (1), (R) → (4), (S) → (3)
  4. (P) → (5), (Q) → (4), (R) → (1), (S) → (3)
JEE Advanced 2025 Paper 1