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JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2

51 questions with answers and solutions.

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Physics 17 questions

1

A particle of mass m is under the influence of the gravitational field of a body of mass M ( m). The particle is moving in a circular orbit of radius r0 with time period T0 around the mass M. Then, the particle is subjected to an additional central force, corresponding to the potential energy Vc(r) = m /r3, where is a positive constant of suitable dimensions and r is the distance from the center of the orbit. If the particle moves in the same circular orbit of radius r0 in the combined gravitational potential due to M and Vc(r), but with a new time period T1, then (T12 - T02)/T12 is given by [G is the gravitational constant.]

  1. 3 GMr02
  2. 2GMr02
  3. GMr02
  4. 2 GMr02
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
2

A metal target with atomic number Z = 46 is bombarded with a high energy electron beam. The emission of X-rays from the target is analyzed. The ratio r of the wavelengths of the K -line and the cut-off is found to be r = 2. If the same electron beam bombards another metal target with Z = 41, the value of r will be

  1. 2.53
  2. 1.27
  3. 2.24
  4. 1.58
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
3

A table tennis ball has radius (3/2) 10-2 m and mass (22/7) 10-3 kg. It is slowly pushed down into a swimming pool to a depth of d = 0.7 m below the water surface and then released from rest. It emerges from the water surface at speed v, without getting wet, and rises up to a height H. Which of the following option(s) is(are) correct? [Given: = 22/7, g = 10 m s-2, density of water = 1 103 kg m-3, viscosity of water = 1 10-3 Pa-s.]

  1. The work done in pushing the ball to the depth d is 0.077 J.
  2. If we neglect the viscous force in water, then the speed v = 7 m/s.
  3. If we neglect the viscous force in water, then the height H = 1.4 m.
  4. The ratio of the magnitudes of the net force excluding the viscous force to the maximum viscous force in water is 500/9.
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
4

The dimensions of a cone are measured using a scale with a least count of 2 mm. The diameter of the base and the height are both measured to be 20.0 cm. The maximum percentage error in the determination of the volume is .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
5

A ball is thrown from the location (x0, y0) = (0, 0) of a horizontal playground with an initial speed v0 at an angle 0 from the +x-direction. The ball is to be hit by a stone, which is thrown at the same time from the location (x1, y1) = (L, 0). The stone is thrown at an angle (180 - 1) from the +x-direction with a suitable initial speed. For a fixed v0, when ( 0, 1) = (45 , 45 ), the stone hits the ball after time T1, and when ( 0, 1) = (60 , 30 ), it hits the ball after time T2. In such a case, (T1/T2)2 is .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
6

A spherical soap bubble inside an air chamber at pressure P0 = 105 Pa has a certain radius so that the excess pressure inside the bubble is P = 144 Pa. Now, the chamber pressure is reduced to 8P0/27 so that the bubble radius and its excess pressure change. In this process, all the temperatures remain unchanged. Assume air to be an ideal gas and the excess pressure P in both the cases to be much smaller than the chamber pressure. The new excess pressure P in Pa is .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
7

A region in the form of an equilateral triangle (in x-y plane) of height L has a uniform magnetic field B pointing in the +z-direction. A conducting loop PQR, in the form of an equilateral triangle of the same height L, is placed in the x-y plane with its vertex P at x = 0 in the orientation shown in the figure. At t = 0, the loop starts entering the region of the magnetic field with a uniform velocity v along the +x-direction. The plane of the loop and its orientation remain unchanged throughout its motion. [figure] Which of the following graph best depicts the variation of the induced emf (E) in the loop as a function of the distance (x) starting from x = 0?

  1. [figure]
  2. [figure]
  3. [figure]
  4. [figure]
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
8

A thin stiff insulated metal wire is bent into a circular loop with its two ends extending tangentially from the same point of the loop. The wire loop has mass m and radius r and it is in a uniform vertical magnetic field B0, as shown in the figure. Initially, it hangs vertically downwards, because of acceleration due to gravity g, on two conducting supports at P and Q. When a current I is passed through the loop, the loop turns about the line PQ by an angle given by [figure]

  1. = rIB0/(mg)
  2. = 2 rIB0/(mg)
  3. = rIB0/(2mg)
  4. = mg/( rIB0)
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
9

A small electric dipole p0, having a moment of inertia I about its center, is kept at a distance r from the center of a spherical shell of radius R. The surface charge density is uniformly distributed on the spherical shell. The dipole is initially oriented at a small angle as shown in the figure. While staying at a distance r, the dipole is free to rotate about its center. [figure] If released from rest, then which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? [ 0 is the permittivity of free space.]

  1. The dipole will undergo small oscillations at any finite value of r.
  2. The dipole will undergo small oscillations at any finite value of r > R.
  3. The dipole will undergo small oscillations with an angular frequency of 2 p0 0 I at r = 2R.
  4. The dipole will undergo small oscillations with an angular frequency of p0100 0 I at r = 10R.
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
10

A positive, singly ionized atom of mass number AM is accelerated from rest by the voltage 192 V. Thereafter, it enters a rectangular region of width w with magnetic field B0 = 0.1 k Tesla, as shown in the figure. The ion finally hits a detector at the distance x below its starting trajectory. [Given: Mass of neutron/proton = (5/3) 10-27 kg, charge of the electron = 1.6 10-19 C.] [figure] Which of the following option(s) is(are) correct?

  1. The value of x for H+ ion is 4 cm.
  2. The value of x for an ion with AM = 144 is 48 cm.
  3. For detecting ions with 1 AM 196, the minimum height (x1 - x0) of the detector is 55 cm.
  4. The minimum width w of the region of the magnetic field for detecting ions with AM = 196 is 56 cm.
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
11

A charge is kept at the central point P of a cylindrical region. The two edges subtend a half-angle at P, as shown in the figure. When = 30 , then the electric flux through the curved surface of the cylinder is . If = 60 , then the electric flux through the curved surface becomes / n, where the value of n is . [figure]

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
12

Two equilateral-triangular prisms P1 and P2 are kept with their sides parallel to each other, in vacuum, as shown in the figure. A light ray enters prism P1 at an angle of incidence such that the outgoing ray undergoes minimum deviation in prism P2. If the respective refractive indices of P1 and P2 are 32 and 3, then = -1 [ 32 ( ) ], where the value of is . [figure]

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
13

An infinitely long thin wire, having a uniform charge density per unit length of 5 nC/m, is passing through a spherical shell of radius 1 m, as shown in the figure. A 10 nC charge is distributed uniformly over the spherical shell. If the configuration of the charges remains static, the magnitude of the potential difference between points P and R, in Volt, is . [Given: In SI units 14 0 = 9 109, 2 = 0.7. Ignore the area pierced by the wire.] [figure]

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
14

The 8th bright fringe above the point O oscillates with time between two extreme positions. The separation between these two extreme positions, in micrometer ( m), is .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
15

The maximum speed in m/s at which the 8th bright fringe will move is .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
16

If the collision occurs at time t0 = 0, the value of vcm/(a ) will be .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
17

If the collision occurs at time t0 = /(2 ), then the value of 4b2/a2 will be .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2

Chemistry 17 questions

18

According to Bohr’s model, the highest kinetic energy is associated with the electron in the

  1. first orbit of H atom
  2. first orbit of He+
  3. second orbit of He+
  4. second orbit of Li2+
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
19

In a metal deficient oxide sample, MXY2O4 (M and Y are metals), M is present in both +2 and +3 oxidation states and Y is in +3 oxidation state. If the fraction of M2+ ions present in M is 13, the value of X is .

  1. 0.25
  2. 0.33
  3. 0.67
  4. 0.75
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
20

The species formed on fluorination of phosphorus pentachloride in a polar organic solvent are

  1. [PF4]+[PF6]- and [PCl4]+[PF6]-
  2. [PCl4]+[PCl4F2]- and [PCl4]+[PF6]-
  3. PF3 and PCl3
  4. PF5 and PCl3
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
21

An aqueous solution of hydrazine (N2H4) is electrochemically oxidized by O2, thereby releasing chemical energy in the form of electrical energy. One of the products generated from the electrochemical reaction is N2(g). Choose the correct statement(s) about the above process

  1. OH- ions react with N2H4 at the anode to form N2(g) and water, releasing 4 electrons to the anode.
  2. At the cathode, N2H4 breaks to N2(g) and nascent hydrogen released at the electrode reacts with oxygen to form water.
  3. At the cathode, molecular oxygen gets converted to OH-.
  4. Oxides of nitrogen are major by-products of the electrochemical process.
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
22

The compound(s) having peroxide linkage is(are)

  1. H2S2O7
  2. H2S2O8
  3. H2S2O5
  4. H2SO5
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
23

To form a complete monolayer of acetic acid on 1g of charcoal, 100 mL of 0.5 M acetic acid was used. Some of the acetic acid remained unadsorbed. To neutralize the unadsorbed acetic acid, 40 mL of 1 M NaOH solution was required. If each molecule of acetic acid occupies P 10-23 m2 surface area on charcoal, the value of P is . [Use given data: Surface area of charcoal = 1.5 102 m2 g-1; Avogadro’s number (NA) = 6.0 1023 mol-1]

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
24

Among [Co(CN)4]4-, [Co(CO)3(NO)], XeF4, [PCl4]+, [PdCl4]2-, [ICl4]-, [Cu(CN)4]3- and P4 the total number of species with tetrahedral geometry is .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
25

In the following reaction sequence, the major product Q is L-Glucose [ii) Cr2O3, 775 K, 10-20 atm]i) HI, P [UV]Cl2 (excess) Q

  1. [figure]
  2. [figure]
  3. [figure]
  4. [figure]
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
26

The option(s) with correct sequence of reagents for the conversion of P to Q is(are) [figure]

  1. i) Lindlar’s catalyst, H2; ii) SnCl2/HCl; iii) NaBH4; iv) H3O+
  2. i) Lindlar’s catalyst, H2; ii) H3O+; iii) SnCl2/HCl; iv) NaBH4
  3. i) NaBH4; ii) SnCl2/HCl; iii) H3O+; iv) Lindlar’s catalyst, H2
  4. i) Lindlar’s catalyst, H2; ii) NaBH4; iii) SnCl2/HCl; iv) H3O+
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
27

Vessel-1 contains w2 g of a non-volatile solute X dissolved in w1 g of water. Vessel-2 contains w2 g of another non-volatile solute Y dissolved in w1 g of water. Both the vessels are at the same temperature and pressure. The molar mass of X is 80% of that of Y. The van’t Hoff factor for X is 1.2 times of that of Y for their respective concentrations. The elevation of boiling point for solution in Vessel-1 is % of the solution in Vessel-2.

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
28

For a double strand DNA, one strand is given below: [figure] The amount of energy required to split the double strand DNA into two single strands is kcal mol-1. [Given: Average energy per H-bond for A-T base pair = 1.0 kcal mol-1, G-C base pair = 1.5 kcal mol-1, and A-U base pair = 1.25 kcal mol-1. Ignore electrostatic repulsion between the phosphate groups.]

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
29

A sample initially contains only U-238 isotope of uranium. With time, some of the U-238 radioactively decays into Pb-206 while the rest of it remains undisintegrated. When the age of the sample is P 108 years, the ratio of mass of Pb-206 to that of U-238 in the sample is found to be 7. The value of P is . [Given: Half-life of U-238 is 4.5 109 years; e 2 = 0.693]

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
30

An organic compound P having molecular formula C6H6O3 gives ferric chloride test and does not have intramolecular hydrogen bond. The compound P reacts with 3 equivalents of NH2OH to produce oxime Q. Treatment of P with excess methyl iodide in the presence of KOH produces compound R as the major product. Reaction of R with excess iso-butylmagnesium bromide followed by treatment with H3O+ gives compound S as the major product. The total number of methyl (-CH3) group(s) in compound S is .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
31

Sum of number of oxygen atoms in S and T is .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
32

The molecular weight of U is .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
33

The number of moles of potassium iodide required to produce two moles of P is .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
34

The number of zinc ions present in the molecular formula of Q is .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2

Mathematics 17 questions

35

Considering only the principal values of the inverse trigonometric functions, the value of ( -1 ( 35 )-2 -1 ( 2 5 ) ) is

  1. 724
  2. -724
  3. -524
  4. 524
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
36

Let S= \(x,y) R R: x 0, y 0, y2 4x, y2 12-2x and 3y+ 8 x 5 8 \. If the area of the region S is 2, then is equal to

  1. 172
  2. 173
  3. 174
  4. 175
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
37

Let k R. If x 0+ ( ( kx)+ x+x ) 2x=e6, then the value of k is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
38

Let f: R R be a function defined by f(x)= cases x2 ( x2 ), & if x 0,\ 0, & if x=0. cases Then which of the following statements is TRUE?

  1. f(x)=0 has infinitely many solutions in the interval [ 11010, ).
  2. f(x)=0 has no solutions in the interval [ 1 , ).
  3. The set of solutions of f(x)=0 in the interval (0, 11010 ) is finite.
  4. f(x)=0 has more than 25 solutions in the interval ( 1 2, 1 ).
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
39

Let S be the set of all ( , ) R R such that x (x2)( e x) ( 1x2 )x ( e(1+x)) =0. Then which of the following is (are) correct?

  1. (-1,3) S
  2. (-1,1) S
  3. (1,-1) S
  4. (1,-2) S
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
40

A straight line drawn from the point P(1,3,2), parallel to the line x-21= y-42= z-61, intersects the plane L1: x-y+3z=6 at the point Q. Another straight line which passes through Q and is perpendicular to the plane L1 intersects the plane L2: 2x-y+z=-4 at the point R. Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?

  1. The length of the line segment PQ is 6
  2. The coordinates of R are (1,6,3)
  3. The centroid of the triangle PQR is ( 43, 143, 53 )
  4. The perimeter of the triangle PQR is 2+ 6+ 11
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
41

Let A1,B1,C1 be three points in the xy-plane. Suppose that the lines A1C1 and B1C1 are tangents to the curve y2=8x at A1 and B1, respectively. If O=(0,0) and C1=(-4,0), then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?

  1. The length of the line segment OA1 is 4 3
  2. The length of the line segment A1B1 is 16
  3. The orthocenter of the triangle A1B1C1 is (0,0)
  4. The orthocenter of the triangle A1B1C1 is (1,0)
JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
42

Let f: R R be a function such that f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y) for all x,y R, and g: R (0, ) be a function such that g(x+y)=g(x)g(y) for all x,y R. If f ( -35 )=12 and g ( -13 )=2, then the value of (f ( 14 )+g(-2)-8 )g(0) is .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
43

A bag contains N balls out of which 3 balls are white, 6 balls are green, and the remaining balls are blue. Assume that the balls are identical otherwise. Three balls are drawn randomly one after the other without replacement. For i=1,2,3, let Wi, Gi, and Bi denote the events that the ball drawn in the ith draw is a white ball, green ball, and blue ball, respectively. If the probability P(W1 G2 B3)= 25N and the conditional probability P(B3 W1 G2)= 29, then N equals .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
44

Let the function f: R R be defined by f(x)= xe x (x2023+2024x+2025 ) (x2-x+3 )+ 2e x (x2023+2024x+2025 ) (x2-x+3 ). Then the number of solutions of f(x)=0 in R is .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
45

Let p=2 i+ j+3 k and q= i- j+ k. If for some real numbers , , and , we have 15 i+10 j+6 k= (2 p+ q )+ ( p-2 q )+ ( p q ), then the value of is .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
46

A normal with slope 1 6 is drawn from the point (0,- ) to the parabola x2=-4ay, where a>0. Let L be the line passing through (0,- ) and parallel to the directrix of the parabola. Suppose that L intersects the parabola at two points A and B. Let r denote the length of the latus rectum and s denote the square of the length of the line segment AB. If r:s=1:16, then the value of 24a is .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
47

Let the function f:[1, ) R be defined by f(t)= cases(-1)n+12, & if t=2n-1, n N,\ (2n+1-t)2f(2n-1)+ (t-(2n-1))2f(2n+1), & if 2n-1<t<2n+1, n N. cases Define g(x)= 1xf(t) dt, x (1, ). Let denote the number of solutions of the equation g(x)=0 in the interval (1,8] and = x 1+ g(x)x-1. Then the value of + is equal to .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
48

If n(X)=mC6, then the value of m is .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
49

If the value of n(Y)+n(Z) is k2, then |k| is .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
50

The value of 2 0 2f(x)g(x) dx- 0 2g(x) dx is .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2
51

The value of 16 3 0 2f(x)g(x) dx is .

JEE Advanced 2024 Paper 2