AIPMT 2012 (Mains)

The dimensions of ( 0 0)-1/2 are

1. [ L1/2T-1/2]
2. [ L-1T]
3. [ LT-1]
4. [ L1/2T1/2]

A stone is dropped from a height h. It hits the ground with a certain momentum P. If the same stone is dropped from a height 100% more than the previous height, the momentum when it hits the ground will change by

1. 68%
2. 41%
3. 200%
4. 100%

A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates so that the instantaneous power delivered to the car has a constant magnitude P0. The instantaneous velocity of this car is proportional to

1. t2P0
2. t1/2
3. t-1/2
4. t m

A car of mass m is moving on a level circular track of radius R. If s represents the coefficient of static friction between the road and tyres of the car, the maximum speed of the car in circular motion is given by

1. s mRg
2. Rg s
3. mRg s
4. s Rg

A circular platform is mounted on a frictionless vertical axle. Its radius R = 2 m and its moment of inertia about the axle is 200 kg m2. It is initially at rest. A 50 kg man stands on the edge of the platform and begins to walk along the edge at the speed of 1 m s-1 relative to the ground. Time taken by the man to complete one revolution is

1. s
2. 3 2 s
3. 2 s
4. 2 s

The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc is maximum about an axis perpendicular to the disc and passing through [figure]

1. B
2. C
3. D
4. A

Three masses are placed on the x-axis : 300 g at origin, 500 g at x = 40 cm and 400 g at x = 70 cm. The distance of the centre of mass from the origin is :

1. 40 cm
2. 45 cm
3. 50 cm
4. 30 cm

If ve is escape velocity and vo is orbital velocity of a satellite for orbit close to the earth's surface, then these are related by

1. vo = 2ve
2. vo = ve
3. ve = 2vo
4. ve = 2 vo

Which one of the following plots represents the variation of gravitational field on a particle with distance r due to a thin spherical shell of radius R? (r is measured from the centre of the spherical shell)

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

A slab of stone of area 0.36 m2 and thickness 0.1 m is exposed on the lower surface to steam at 100 . A block of ice at 0 rests on the upper surface of the slab. In one hour 4.8 kg of ice is melted. The thermal conductivity of slab is (Given latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.36 105 J kg-1)

1. 1.24 J/m/s/ C
2. 1.29 J/m/s/ C
3. 2.05 J/m/s/ C
4. 1.02 J/m/s/ C

An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via three different processes as indicated in the P-V diagram. [figure] If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicate the heat absorbed by the gas along the three processes and U1, U2, U3 indicate the change in internal energy along the three processes respectively, then

1. Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and U1 = U2 = U3
2. Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and U1 = U2 = U3
3. Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and U1 > U2 > U3
4. Q3 = Q2 = Q1 and U1 > U2 > U3

The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by y = 3 2(50t - x), where x and y are in metres and t is in seconds. The ratio of maximum particle velocity to the wave velocity is

1. 2
2. 32
3. 3
4. 23

A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field E in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is d and area of each plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is

1. 12 0E2
2. E2Ad 0
3. 12 0E2Ad
4. 0EAd

Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm are given charges of -1 10-2 C and 5 10-2 C, respectively. If these are connected by a conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger sphere is

1. 2 10-2 C
2. 3 10-2 C
3. 4 10-2 C
4. 1 10-2 C

A cell having an emf and internal resistance r is connected across a variable external resistance R. As the resistance R is increased, the plot of potential difference V across R is given by

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the figure is 30 watts. The value of R is [figure]

1. 20
2. 15
3. 10
4. 30

A proton carrying 1 MeV kinetic energy is moving in a circular path of radius R in uniform magnetic field. What should be the energy of an -particle to describe a circle of same radius in the same field?

1. 2 MeV
2. 1 MeV
3. 0.5 MeV
4. 4 MeV

A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a magnetic field requires 3 J of work to turn it through 60 . The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be

1. 2 3 J
2. 3 J
3. 3 J
4. 32 J

The instantaneous values of alternating current and voltage in a circuit are given as i = 1 2 (100 t) ampere e = 1 2 (100 t + 3 ) Volt The average power in watts consumed in the circuit is

1. 14
2. 34
3. 12
4. 18

In a coil of resistance 10 , the induced current developed by changing magnetic flux through it, is shown in figure as a function of time. The magnitude of change in flux through the coil in weber is [figure]

1. 8
2. 2
3. 6
4. 4

The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field for an electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum is equal to

1. the speed of light in vacuum
2. reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum
3. the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric susceptibility of vacuum
4. unity

For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material whose refractive index

1. lies between 2 and 1
2. lies between 2 and 2
3. is less than 1
4. is greater than 2

A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the image is

1. 10 cm
2. 15 cm
3. 2.5 cm
4. 5 cm

If the momentum of an electron is changed by P, then the de Broglie wavelength associated with it changes by 0.5\%. The initial momentum of electron will be

1. 200 P
2. 400 P
3. P200
4. 100 P

Two radiations of photons energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV, successively illuminate a photosensitive metallic surface of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds of the emitted electrons is

1. 1 : 4
2. 1 : 2
3. 1 : 1
4. 1 : 5

The transition from the state n = 3 to n = 1 in a hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from

1. 2 1
2. 3 2
3. 4 2
4. 4 3

To get an output Y = 1 in given circuit which of the following input will be correct ? [figure]

1. A 1, B 0, C 0
2. A 1, B 0, C 1
3. A 1, B 1, C 0
4. A 0, B 1, C 0

A train moving at a speed of 220 m s-1 towards a stationary object, emits a sound of frequency 1000 Hz. Some of the sound reaching the object gets reflected back to the train as echo. The frequency of the echo as detected by the driver of the train is (Speed of sound in air is 330 m s-1)

1. 3500 Hz
2. 4000 Hz
3. 5000 Hz
4. 3000 Hz

The half life of a radioactive nucleus is 50 days. The time interval (t2 - t1) between the time t2 when 23 of it has decayed and the time t1 when 13 of it had decayed is

1. 30 days
2. 50 days
3. 60 days
4. 15 days

The input resistance of a silicon transistor is 100 . Base current is changed by 40 which results in a change in collector current by 2 mA. This transistor is used as a common emitter amplifier with a load resistance of 4 k . The voltage gain of the amplifier is

1. 2000
2. 3000
3. 4000
4. 1000

The orbital angular momentum of a p-electron is given as

1. h 2
2. 3 h2
3. 32 h
4. 6 h2

During change of O2 to O2- ion, the electron adds on which one of the following orbitals ?

1. * orbital
2. orbital
3. * orbital
4. orbital

Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the correct order in which the bond order is increasing in them

1. NO < O2- < C22- < He2+
2. O2- < NO < C22- < He2+
3. C22- < He2+ < O2- < NO
4. He2+ < O2- < NO < C22-

Given that the equilibrium constant for the reaction, 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) has a value of 278 at a particular temperature. What is the value of the equilibrium constant for the following reaction at the same temperature ? SO3(g) SO2(g) + 12O2(g)

1. 1.8 10-3
2. 3.6 10-3
3. 6.0 10-2
4. 1.3 10-5

Given the reaction between 2 gases represented by A2 and B2 to give the compound AB(g), A2(g) + B2(g) 2AB(g) At equilibrium, the concentration of A2 = 3.0 10-3 M, of B2 = 4.2 10-3 M, of AB = 2.8 10-3 M If the reaction takes place in a sealed vessel at 527 , then the value of Kc will be

1. 2.0
2. 1.9
3. 0.62
4. 4.5

Which of the following reagents will be able to distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne?

1. NaNH2
2. HCl
3. O2
4. Br2

In the replacement reaction [figure] The reaction will be most favourable if M happens to be

1. Na
2. K
3. Rb
4. Li

Which of the following compounds can be used as antifreeze in automobile radiators?

1. Methyl alcohol
2. Glycol
3. Nitrophenol
4. Ethyl alcohol

Consider the reaction : RCHO + NH2NH2 RCH = N - NH2 What sort of reaction is it?

1. Electrophilic addition-elimination reaction
2. Free radical addition-elimination reaction
3. Electrophilic substitution-elimination reaction
4. Nucleophilic addition-elimination reaction

Which of the following compounds will give a yellow precipitate with iodine and alkali?

1. Acetophenone
2. Methyl acetate
3. Acetamide
4. 2-Hydroxypropane

Consider the following reaction [figure] The product A is

1. C6H5CHO
2. C6H5OH
3. C6H5COCH3
4. C6H5Cl

An organic compound (C3H9N) (A), when treated with nitrous acid, gave an alcohol and N2 gas was evolved. (A) on warming with CHCl3 and caustic potash gave (C) which on reduction gave isopropylmethylamine. Predict the structure of (A)

1. [figure]
2. CH3CH2-NH-CH3
3. [figure]
4. CH3CH2CH2-NH2

Vapour pressure of chloroform (CHCl3) and dichloromethane (CH2Cl2) at 25 are 200 mm Hg and 41.5 mm Hg respectively. Vapour pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 25.5 g of CHCl3 and 40 g of CH2Cl2 at the same temperature will be (Molecular mass of CHCl3 = 119.5 u and molecular mass of CH2Cl2 = 85 u)

1. 173.9 mm Hg
2. 615.0 mm Hg
3. 90.6 mm Hg
4. 285.5 mm Hg

Standard reduction potentials of the half reactions are given below : F2(g) + 2e- 2F-(aq); E = +2.85 V Cl2(g) + 2e- 2Cl-(aq); E = +1.36 V Br2(l) + 2e- 2Br-(aq); E = +1.06 V I2(s) + 2e- 2I-(aq); E = +0.53 V The strongest oxidising and reducing agents respectively are

1. F2 and I-
2. Br2 and Cl-
3. Cl2 and Br-
4. Cl2 and I2

Molar conductivities ( m) at infinite dilution of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa are 126.4, 425.9 and 91.0 S cm2 mol-1 respectively. ( m) for CH3COOH will be

1. 425.5 S cm2 mol-1
2. 180.5 S cm2 mol-1
3. 290.8 S cm2 mol-1
4. 390.5 S cm2 mol-1

The Gibbs energy for the decomposition of Al2O3 at 500 is as follows 23Al2O3 43Al + O2 rG = +960 kJ mol-1 The potential difference needed for the electrolytic reduction of aluminium oxide (Al2O3) at 500 is at least

1. 4.5 V
2. 3.0 V
3. 2.5 V
4. 5.0 V

Activation energy (Ea) and rate constants (k1 and k2) of a chemical reaction at two different temperatures (T1 and T2) are related by

1. k2k1 = - EaR ( 1T1 - 1T2 )
2. k2k1 = - EaR ( 1T2 - 1T1 )
3. k2k1 = - EaR ( 1T2 + 1T1 )
4. k2k1 = EaR ( 1T1 - 1T2 )

In which of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the property indicated against it?

1. HF < HCl < HBr < HI : increasing acidic strength
2. H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te : increasing pKa values
3. NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : increasing acidic character
4. CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : increasing oxidising power

The catalytic activity of transition metals and their compounds is ascribed mainly to

1. their magnetic behaviour
2. their unfilled d-orbitals
3. their ability to adopt variable oxidation states
4. their chemical reactivity

Which of the following exhibits only + 3 oxidation state?

1. U
2. Th
3. Ac
4. Pa

Which one of the following does not correctly represent the correct order of the property indicated against it?

1. Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing number of oxidation states
2. Ti3+ < V3+ < Cr3+ < Mn3+ : increasing magnetic moment
3. Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing melting points
4. Ti < V < Mn < Cr : increasing 2nd ionization enthalpy

Four successive members of the first series of the transition metals are listed below. For which one of them the standard potential ( E M2+/M ) value has a positive sign?

1. Co (Z = 27)
2. Ni (Z = 28)
3. Cu (Z = 29)
4. Fe (Z = 26)

Low spin complex of d6-cation in an octahedral field will have the following energy

1. -125 o + P
2. -125 o + 3P
3. -25 o + 2P
4. -25 o + P

Red precipitate is obtained when ethanol solution of dimethylglyoxime is added to ammoniacal Ni(II). Which of the following statements is not true? [figure]

1. Red complex has a square planar geometry.
2. Complex has symmetrical H-bonding.
3. Red complex has a tetrahedral geometry.
4. Dimethylglyoxime functions as bidentate ligand.

A certain gas takes three times as long to effuse out as helium. Its molecular mass will be

1. 27 u
2. 36 u
3. 64 u
4. 9 u

For real gases van der Waals equation is written as (p + an2V2 )(V - nb) = nRT where a and b are van der Waals constants. Two sets of gases are (I) O2, CO2, H2 and He (II) CH4, O2 and H2 The gases given in set-I in increasing order of b and gases given in set-II in decreasing order of a, are arranged below. Select the correct order from the following

1. (I) He < H2 < CO2 < O2 (II) CH4 > H2 > O2
2. (I) O2 < He < H2 < CO2 (II) H2 > O2 > CH4
3. (I) H2 < He < O2 < CO2 (II) CH4 > O2 > H2
4. (I) H2 < O2 < He < CO2 (II) O2 > CH4 > H2

Equal volumes of two monoatomic gases, A and B at same temperature and pressure are mixed. The ratio of specific heats (Cp/Cv) of the mixture will be

1. 0.83
2. 1.50
3. 3.3
4. 1.67

Which one of the following sets forms the biodegradable polymer?

1. CH2=CH-CN and CH2=CH-CH=CH2
2. H2N-CH2-COOH and H2N-(CH2)5-COOH
3. HO-CH2-CH2-OH and [figure]
4. [figure] and CH2=CH-CH=CH2

Structure of a mixed oxide is cubic close packed (ccp). The cubic unit cell of mixed oxide is composed of oxide ions. One fourth of the tetrahedral voids are occupied by divalent metal A and the octahedral voids are occupied by a monovalent metal B. The formula of the oxide is

1. ABO2
2. A2BO2
3. A2B3O4
4. AB2O2

Chloramphenicol is an

1. antifertility drug
2. antihistaminic
3. antiseptic and disinfectant
4. antibiotic-broad spectrum

Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the international Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described?

1. Musca domestica – the common house lizard, a reptile
2. Plasmodium falciparum – a protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria.
3. Felis tigris – the Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests.
4. E. coli – full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occurring bacterium in human intestine.

In the five kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in

1. protista
2. algae
3. plantae
4. monera.

Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

1. Ginkgo – Archegonia
2. Salvinia – Prothallus
3. Viroids – RNA
4. Mustard – Synergids

Read the following five statements (A – E) and answer as asked next to them. How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. One

How many organisms in the list given below are autotrophs? Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Saccharomyces, Trypanosoma, Porphyra, Wolffia

1. Four
2. Five
3. Six
4. Three

Which one of the following organisms is correctly matched with its three characteristics?

1. Pea : C3 pathway, endospermic seed, vexillary aestivation
2. Tomato : twisted aestivation, axile placentation, berry
3. Onion : bulb, imbricate aestivation, axile placentation
4. Maize : C3 pathway, closed vascular bundles, scutellum

How many plants in the list given below have marginal placentation? Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, Arhar, Sun hemp, Chilli, Colchicum, Onion, Moong, Pea, Tobacco, Lupin

1. Four
2. Five
3. Six
4. Three

Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterized?

1. Lecithin – a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane.
2. Palmitic acid – an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms.
3. Adenylic acid – adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule.
4. Alanine amino acid – contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule.

Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous chromosomes separate while the sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres.

1. Metaphase I
2. Metaphase II
3. Anaphase I
4. Anaphase II

Read the following four statements (A – D). How many of the above statements are right?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. One

Through their effects on plant growth regulators, what do the temperature and light control in the plants?

1. Apical dominance
2. Flowering
3. Closure of stomata
4. Fruit elongation

Which one of the following generally acts as an antagonist to gibberellins?

1. Zeatin
2. Ethylene
3. ABA
4. IAA

Vernalization stimulates flowering in

1. zamikand
2. turmeric
3. carrot
4. ginger.

What is the function of germ pore?

1. Emergence of radicle
2. Absorption of water for seed germination
3. Initiation of pollen tube
4. Release of male gametes

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

1. When pollen is shed at two-celled stage, double fertilization does not take place.
2. Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell.
3. Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for months.
4. Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin.

Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules, are generally pollinated by

1. bees
2. butterflies
3. birds
4. wind

Represented below is the inheritance pattern of a certain type of traits in humans. Which one of the following conditions could be an example of this pattern ? [figure]

1. Haemophilia
2. Sickle cell anaemia
3. Thalassemia
4. Phenylketonuria

A test cross is carried out to :

1. Determine whether two species or varieties will breed successfully
2. Determine the genotype of a plant at F2
3. Predict whether two traits are linked
4. Assess the number of alleles of a gene

In gobar gas, the maximum amount is that of :

1. Propane
2. Butane
3. Methane
4. Carbon dioxide

Read the following four statements (A-D) : How many of the above statements are right ?

1. Four
2. Two
3. Three
4. One

The domestic sewage in large cities :

1. has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts
2. has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria.
3. is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary treatment in Sewage Treatment Plant (STPs)
4. When treated in STPs does not really require the aeration step as the sewage contains adequate oxygen

Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones only :

1. Statements B, C and D
2. Statements C, D
3. Statements A, C and D
4. Statements A, B

What is it that forms the basis of DNA Fingerprinting ?

1. The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA
2. The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints
3. The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva
4. Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments

Cuscuta is an example of :

1. Ectoparasitism
2. Predation
3. Endoparasitism
4. Brood parasitism

The rate of formation of new organic matter by rabbit in a grassland, is called :

1. Net productivity
2. Gross primary productivity
3. Secondary productivity
4. Net primary productivity

The second stage of hydrosere is occupied by plants like

1. Vallisneria
2. Typha
3. Azolla
4. Salix

Identify the likely organisms (a), (b), (c) and (d) in the food web shown below : [figure]

1. (a) deer, (b) rabbit, (c) frog, (d) rat
2. (a) squirrel, (b) cat, (c) rat, (d) pigeon
3. (a) dog, (b) squirrel, (c) bat, (d) deer
4. (a) rat, (b) dog, (c) tortoise, (d) crow

Select the correct statement about biodiversity :

1. Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism
2. The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal species as well as numerous rare animals
3. Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity
4. Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by the developed countries

Sacred groves are specially useful in

1. year-round flow of water in rivers
2. conserving rare and threatened species
3. preventing soil erosion
4. generating environmental awareness

As compared to a dicot root, a monocot root has

1. More abundant secondary xylem
2. Relatively thicker periderm
3. Many xylem bundles
4. Inconspicuous annual rings

Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described ?

1. Lysosomes - optimally active at a pH of about 8.5
2. Centrioles - sites for active RNA synthesis
3. Thylakoids - flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts
4. Ribosomes - those on chloroplasts are larger (80S) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70S)

Which one of the following structures is an organelle within an organelle ?

1. Mesosome
2. Peroxisome
3. Ribosome
4. ER

Which one of the following sets of items in the option A – D are correctly categorized with one exception in it ?

1. array|l|l|l| ITEMS & CATEGORY & EXCEPTION \ Kangaroo, Koala, Wombat & Australian marsupials & Wombat \ array
2. array|l|l|l| ITEMS & CATEGORY & EXCEPTION \ Typhoid, Pneumonia, Diphtheria & Bacterial diseases & Diphtheria \ array
3. array|l|l|l| ITEMS & CATEGORY & EXCEPTION \ UAA, UAG, UGA & Stop codons & UAG \ array
4. array|l|l|l| ITEMS & CATEGORY & EXCEPTION \ Plasmodium, Cuscuta, Trypanosoma & Protozoan parasites & Cuscuta \ array

Read the following four statements (A-D) : How many of the above statements are wrong ?

1. Two
2. One
3. Four
4. Three

Which one of the following is a wrong statement regarding mutations ?

1. UV and gamma rays are mutagens
2. Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frame-shift mutations
3. Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations
4. Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation

For its action, nitrogenase requires

1. high input of energy
2. light
3. Mn2+
4. super oxygen radicals

For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires

1. Zinc
2. iron
3. niacin
4. copper

Green revolution in India occurred during -

1. 1980's
2. 1950's
3. 1960's
4. 1970's

Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated against them?

1. Pteropus and Ornithorhynchus – Viviparity
2. Garden lizard and crocodile – Three chambered heart
3. Ascaris and Ancylostoma – Metameric segmentation
4. Sea horse and flying fish – Cold blooded (poikilothermal)

Which one of the following categories of animals, is correctly described with no single exception in it?

1. All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered heart and are cold blooded (poikilothermal).
2. All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an operculum on each side.
3. All sponges are marine and have collared cells.
4. All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathing.

Which one of the following human organs is often called the "graveyard" of RBCs?

1. Gall bladder
2. Kidney
3. Spleen
4. Liver

Which one of the following options gives the correct categorization of six animals according to the type of nitrogenous waste they give out?

1. array|l|l|l| Ammonotelic & Ureotelic & Uricotelic \ Pigeon, humans & Aquatic amphibia, lizards & Cockroach, frog \ array
2. array|l|l|l| Ammonotelic & Ureotelic & Uricotelic \ Frog, lizards & Aquatic amphibia, humans & Cockroach, pigeon \ array
3. array|l|l|l| Ammonotelic & Ureotelic & Uricotelic \ Aquatic amphibia & Frog, humans & Pigeon, lizards, cockroach \ array
4. array|l|l|l| Ammonotelic & Ureotelic & Uricotelic \ Aquatic amphibia & Cockroach, humans & Frog, pigeon, lizards \ array

A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates

1. juxtaglomerular cells to release renin
2. adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
3. adrenal medulla to release adrenaline
4. posterior pituitary to release vasopressin.

Which one of the following characteristics is common both in humans and adult frogs?

1. Four chambered heart
2. Internal fertilization
3. Nucleated RBCs
4. Ureotelic mode of excretion

The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called :

1. Follicular phase lasting for about 6 days
2. Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days
3. Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days
4. Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days

The idea of mutations was brought forth by :

1. Charles Darwin, who observed a wide variety of organisms during sea voyage
2. Hugo de Vries, who worked on evening primrose
3. Gregor Mendel, who worked on Pisum sativum
4. Hardy and Weinberg, who worked on allele frequencies in a population

Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use. [figure]

1. Molecule (b) Heroin, Source Cannabis sativa, Use Depressant and slows down body functions
2. Molecule (a) Morphine, Source Papaver somniferum, Use Sedative and pain killer
3. Molecule (a) Cocaine, Source Erythroxylum coca, Use Accelerates the transport of dopamine
4. Molecule (b) Cannabinoid, Source Atropa belladonna, Use Produces hallucinations

Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for

1. DNA finger printing
2. Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors
3. Disarming pathogen vectors
4. Transformation of plant cells

In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used

1. As sequences from where replication starts
2. As selectable markers
3. To keep the cultures free of infection
4. To select healthy vectors

Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA ?

1. 5′-GAATTC-3′ 3′-CTTAAG-5′
2. 5′-GATACC-3′ 3′-CCTAAG-5′
3. 5′-CCAATG-3′ 3′-GAATCC-5′
4. 5′-CATTAG-3′ 3′-GATAAC-5′

The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the option giving correct identification together with what it represents ? [figure]

1. C - Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase
2. B - Denaturation at a temperature of about 98 separating the two DNA strands
3. A - Denaturation at a temperature of about 50
4. A - Annealing with two sets of primers

Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been developed by the introduction of DNA that produced (in the host cells) :

1. An antifeedant
2. A toxic protein
3. Both sense and anti-sense RNA
4. A particular hormone

The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating

1. Rheumatoid arthritis
2. Adenosine deaminase deficiency
3. Diabetes mellitus
4. Chicken pox

Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts labeled A, B, C and D and select the right option about them [Figure]

1. A Mast cell, B Collagen fibres, C Fibroblast, D Macrophage
2. A Mast cell, B Macrophage, C Fibroblast, D Collagen fibres
3. A Macrophage, B Fibroblast, C Collagen fibres, D Mast cell
4. A Macrophage, B Collagen fibres, C Fibroblast, D Mast cell

The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of

1. Ligament
2. Areolar tissue
3. Cartilage
4. Bone

The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below, represent four different types of animal tissues. Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct location and function ? [Figure]

1. (A) Tissue Columnar epithelium, Location Nephron, Function Secretion and absorption
2. (C) Tissue Collagen fibres, Location Cartilage, Function Attach skeletal muscles to bones
3. (B) Tissue Glandular epithelium, Location Intestine, Function Secretion
4. (D) Tissue Smooth muscle tissue, Location Heart, Function Heart contraction

Identify the human developmental stage shown below as well as the related right place of its occurrence in a normal pregnant woman, and select the right option for the two, together. [Figure]

1. Developmental stage Late morula, Site of occurrence Middle part of Fallopian tube
2. Developmental stage Blastula, Site of occurrence End part of Fallopian tube
3. Developmental stage 8-celled morula, Site of occurrence Starting point of Fallopian tube
4. Developmental stage Blastocyst, Site of occurrence Uterine wall

Which one of the following pairs of chemical substances, is correctly categorised ?

1. Secretin and rhodopsin - Polypeptide hormones
2. Pepsin and prolactin - Two digestive enzymes secreted in stomach
3. Troponin and myosin - Complex proteins in striated muscles
4. Calcitonin and thymosin - Thyroid hormones

Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity?

1. Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes.
2. Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.
3. The antibodies against smallpox pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes
4. Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains.

Where do certain symbiotic microorganisms normally occur in human body?

1. Caecum
2. Oral lining and tongue surface
3. Vermiform appendix and rectum
4. Duodenum