NEET 2016 (Phase 2)

Planck's constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) and Newton's gravitational constant (G) are three fundamental constants. Which of the following combinations of these has the dimension of length ?

1. hGc3/2
2. hGc5/2
3. hcG
4. Gch3/2

Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same time in a straight line and their positions are represented by xP(t) = (at + bt2) and xQ(t) = (ft - t2). At what time do the cars have the same velocity ?

1. a-f1+b
2. a+f2(b-1)
3. a+f2(1+b)
4. f-a2(1+b)

In the given figure, a = 15 m s-2 represents the total acceleration of particle moving in the clockwise direction in a circle of radius R = 2.5 m at a given instant of time. The speed of the particle is [figure]

1. 4.5 m s-1
2. 5.0 m s-1
3. 5.7 m s-1
4. 6.2 m s-1

A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at 60 and gets reflected without loss of speed as shown in the figure. The value of impulse imparted by the wall on the ball will be : [figure]

1. mV
2. 2 mV
3. mV2
4. mV3

A bullet of mass 10 g moving horizontally with a velocity of 400 m s-1 strikes a wood block of mass 2 kg which is suspended by light inextensible string of length 5 m. As a result, the centre of gravity of the block is found to rise a vertical distance of 10 cm. The speed of the bullet after it emerges out horizontally from the block will be

1. 100 m s-1
2. 80 m s-1
3. 120 m s-1
4. 160 m s-1

Two identical balls A and B having velocities of 0.5 m s-1 and -0.3 m s-1 respectively collide elastically in one dimension. The velocities of B and A after the collision respectively will be :

1. -0.5 m s-1 and 0.3 m s-1
2. 0.5 m s-1 and -0.3 m s-1
3. -0.3 m s-1 and 0.5 m s-1
4. 0.3 m s-1 and 0.5 m s-1

A particle moves from a point (-2 i+5 j ) to (4 j+3 k ) when a force of (4 i+3 j ) N is applied. How much work has been done by the force ?

1. 8 J
2. 11 J
3. 5 J
4. 2 J

Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m and 2m with moments of inertia IA and IB (IB > IA) have equal kinetic energy of rotation. If LA and LB be their angular momenta respectively, then

1. LA = LB2
2. LA = 2LB
3. LB > LA
4. LA > LB

A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating about its diameter. A solid cylinder of same mass and same radius is also rotating about its geometrical axis with an angular speed twice that of the sphere. The ratio of their kinetic energies of rotation (Esphere/Ecylinder) will be

1. 2 : 3
2. 1 : 5
3. 1 : 4
4. 3 : 1

A light rod of length l has two masses m1 and m2 attached to its two ends. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod and passing through the centre of mass is

1. m1m2m1+m2l2
2. m1+m2m1m2l2
3. (m1+m2)l2
4. m1m2 l2

Starting from the centre of the earth having radius R, the variation of g (acceleration due to gravity) is shown by

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth (of radius R) at a height h from its surface. The total energy of the satellite in terms of g0, the value of acceleration due to gravity at the earth's surface, is

1. mg0R22(R+h)
2. - mg0R22(R+h)
3. 2mg0R2R+h
4. - 2mg0R2R+h

A rectangular film of liquid is extended from (4 cm 2 cm) to (5 cm 4 cm). If the work done is 3 10-4 J, the value of the surface tension of the liquid is

1. 0.250 N m-1
2. 0.125 N m-1
3. 0.2 N m-1
4. 8.0 N m-1

Three liquids of densities 1, 2 and 3 (with 1 > 2 > 3), having the same value of surface tension T, rise to the same height in three identical capillaries. The angles of contact 1, 2 and 3 obey

1. 2 > 1 > 2 > 3 0
2. 0 1 < 2 < 3 < 2
3. 2 < 1 < 2 < 3 <
4. > 1 > 2 > 3 > 2

Two identical bodies are made of a material for which the heat capacity increases with temperature. One of these is at 100 , while the other one is at 0 . If the two bodies are brought into contact, then, assuming no heat loss, the final common temperature is

1. 50
2. more than 50
3. less than 50 but greater than 0
4. 0

A body cools from a temperature 3T to 2T in 10 minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume that Newton's law of cooling is applicable. The temperature of the body at the end of next 10 minutes will be

1. 74 T
2. 32 T
3. 43 T
4. T

One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a process described by the equation PV3 = constant. The heat capacity of the gas during this process is

1. 32 R
2. 52 R
3. 2R
4. R

The temperature inside a refrigerator is t2 C and the room temperature is t1 C. The amount of heat delivered to the room for each joule of electrical energy consumed ideally will be

1. t1t1 - t2
2. t1 + 273t1 - t2
3. t2 + 273t1 - t2
4. t1 + t2t1 + 273

A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume V at a pressure P and absolute temperature T. The mass of each molecule of the gas is m. Which of the following gives the density of the gas ?

1. P/(kT)
2. Pm/(kT)
3. P/(kTV)
4. mkT

A body of mass m is attached to the lower end of a spring whose upper end is fixed. The spring has negligible mass. When the mass m is slightly pulled down and released, it oscillates with a time period of 3 s. When the mass m is increased by 1 kg, the time period of oscillations becomes 5 s. The value of m in kg is

1. 34
2. 43
3. 169
4. 916

The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the same frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe L metre long. The length of the open pipe will be

1. L
2. 2L
3. L2
4. 4L

Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (n - 1), n, (n + 1). They superimpose to give beats. The number of beats produced per second will be

1. 1
2. 4
3. 3
4. 2

An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30 with an electric field intensity 2 105 N C-1. It experiences a torque equal to 4 N m. The charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm, is

1. 8 mC
2. 2 mC
3. 5 mC
4. 7

A parallel-plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with four dielectric materials having dielectric constants k1, k2, k3 and k4 as shown in the figure. If a single dielectric material is to be used to have the same capacitance C in this capacitor, then its dielectric constant k is given by [figure]

1. k = k1 + k2 + k3 + 3k4
2. k = 23(k1 + k2 + k3) + 2k4
3. 2k = 3k1 + k2 + k3 + 1k4
4. 1k = 1k1 + 1k2 + 1k3 + 32k4

The potential difference (VA - VB) between the points A and B in the given figure is [figure]

1. -3 V
2. +3 V
3. +6 V
4. +9 V

A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used in a 230 V main supply. When a resistance R is connected in series, it works perfectly and the bulb consumes 500 W. The value of R is

1. 230
2. 46
3. 26
4. 13

A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic field at the centre of this coil of n turns will be

1. nB
2. n2B
3. 2nB
4. 2n2B

An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field of 3.57 10-2 T. If the value of e/m is 1.76 1011 C kg-1, the frequency of revolution of the electron is

1. 1 GHz
2. 100 MHz
3. 62.8 MHz
4. 6.28 MHz

A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a uniform horizontal magnetic field and is in equilibrium state. The energy required to rotate it by 60 is W. Now the torque required to keep the magnet in this new position is

1. W 3
2. 3W
3. 3W2
4. 2W 3

Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an L-C-R circuit used for communication?

1. R = 20 , L = 1.5 H, C = 35
2. R = 25 , L = 2.5 H, C = 45
3. R = 15 , L = 3.5 H, C = 30
4. R = 25 , L = 1.5 H, C = 45

A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a region of radius r. The magnetic field changes with time at a rate d Bdt. Loop 1 of radius R > r encloses the region r and loop 2 of radius R is outside the region of magnetic field as shown in the figure. Then the e.m.f. generated is [figure]

1. zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
2. - d Bdt r2 in loop 1 and - d Bdt r2 in loop 2
3. - d Bdt R2 in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
4. - d Bdt r2 in loop 1 and zero in loop 2

The potential differences across the resistance, capacitance and inductance are 80 V, 40 V and 100 V respectively in an L-C-R circuit. The power factor of this circuit is

1. 0.4
2. 0.5
3. 0.8
4. 1.0

A 100 resistance and a capacitor of 100 reactance are connected in series across a 220 V source. When the capacitor is 50\% charged, the peak value of the displacement current is

1. 2.2 A
2. 11 A
3. 4.4 A
4. 11 2 A

Two identical glass ( g = 3/2) equiconvex lenses of focal length f each are kept in contact. The space between the two lenses is filled with water ( w = 4/3). The focal length of the combination is

1. f/3
2. f
3. 4f/3
4. 3f/4

An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab is

1. 8
2. 10
3. 12
4. 16

The interference pattern is obtained with two coherent light sources of intensity ratio n. In the interference pattern, the ratio Imax - Imin Imax + Imin will be

1. nn + 1
2. 2 nn + 1
3. n(n + 1)2
4. 2 n(n + 1)2

A person can see clearly objects only when they lie between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In order to increase the maximum distance of distinct vision to infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens, the person has to use, will be

1. convex, +2.25 diopter
2. concave, -0.25 diopter
3. concave, -0.2 diopter
4. convex, +0.15 diopter

A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60 cm. The aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel beam of wavelength 5 10-5 cm. The distance of the first dark band of the diffraction pattern from the centre of the screen is

1. 0.10 cm
2. 0.25 cm
3. 0.20 cm
4. 0.15 cm

Electrons of mass m with de-Broglie wavelength fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cutoff wavelength ( 0) of the emitted X-ray is

1. 0 = 2mc 2h
2. 0 = 2hmc
3. 0 = 2m2c2 3h2
4. 0 =

Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a cathode C in a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons will reach the anode A, if the stopping potential of A relative to C is

1. +3 V
2. +4 V
3. -1 V
4. -3 V

If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3rd orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength . When it jumps from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit, the corresponding wavelength of the photon will be

1. 1625
2. 916
3. 207
4. 2013

The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure. The current flowing through the resistance R1 will be [figure]

1. 2.5 A
2. 10.0 A
3. 1.43 A
4. 3.13 A

What is the output Y in the following circuit, when all the three inputs A, B, C are first 0 and then 1? [figure]

1. 0, 1
2. 0, 0
3. 1, 0
4. 1, 1

The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 minutes. The time (in minutes) taken between 40% decay and 85% decay of the same radioactive substance is

1. 15
2. 30
3. 45
4. 60

For CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2 k is 4 V. If the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100 and the base resistance is 1 k , then the input signal voltage is

1. 10 mV
2. 20 mV
3. 30 mV
4. 15 mV

Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole of XY2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are

1. 40, 30
2. 60, 40
3. 20, 30
4. 30, 20

How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which n = 3 and l = 1?

1. 2
2. 6
3. 10
4. 14

Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have electron density along the axes ?

1. dz2, dxz
2. dxz, dyz
3. dz2, dx2-y2
4. dxy, dx2-y2

Which one of the following compounds shows the presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond?

1. H2O2
2. HCN
3. Cellulose
4. Concentrated acetic acid

The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+, NO3- and NH4+ respectively are

1. sp, sp3 and sp2
2. sp2, sp3 and sp
3. sp, sp2 and sp3
4. sp2, sp and sp3

Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic and isostructural?

1. CO32-, NO3-
2. ClO3-, CO32-
3. SO32-, NO3-
4. ClO3-, SO32-

The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF4 are

1. octahedral, sp3d2
2. trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d
3. planar triangle, sp3d3
4. square planar, sp3d2

Among the following, which one is a wrong statement ?

1. PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist.
2. p -d bonds are present in SO2.
3. SeF4 and CH4 have same shape.
4. I3+ has bent geometry.

For a sample of perfect gas when its pressure is changed isothermally from pi to pf, the entropy change is given by

1. S = nR ( pfpi )
2. S = nR ( pipf )
3. S = nRT ( pfpi )
4. S = RT ( pipf )

The percentage of pyridine (C5H5N) that forms pyridinium ion (C5H5N+H) in a 0.10 M aqueous pyridine solution (Kb for C5H5N = 1.7 10-9) is

1. 0.0060%
2. 0.013%
3. 0.77%
4. 1.6%

The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility product 1.6 10-10 in 0.1 M NaCl solution would be

1. 1.25 10-5 M
2. 1.6 10-9 M
3. 1.6 10-11 M
4. zero

Which of the following fluoro-compounds is most likely to behave as a Lewis base ?

1. BF3
2. PF3
3. CF4
4. SiF4

Which among the given molecules can exhibit tautomerism? [figure]

1. III only
2. Both I and III
3. Both I and II
4. Both II and III

Which of the following can be used as halide component for Friedel-Crafts reaction?

1. Chlorobenzene
2. Bromobenzene
3. Chloroethene
4. Isopropyl chloride

In which of the following molecules, atoms are coplanar?

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

In pyrrole the electron density is maximum on [figure]

1. 2 and 3
2. 3 and 4
3. 2 and 4
4. 2 and 5

Which of the following compounds shall not produce propene by reaction with HBr followed by elimination or direct only elimination reaction ?

1. [figure]
2. H3C- H2 |C-CH2OH
3. H2C=C=O
4. H3C- H2 |C-CH2Br

In the given reaction, [figure] the product P is

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

The compound that will react most readily with gaseous bromine has the formula

1. C3H6
2. C2H2
3. C4H10
4. C2H4

Consider the reaction, CH3CH2CH2Br + NaCN CH3CH2CH2CN + NaBr The reaction will be the fastest in

1. ethanol
2. methanol
3. N,N-dimethylformamide (DMF)
4. water

Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately strong oxidizing agent. Which of the following reactions does not show oxidizing behaviour?

1. Cu + 2H2SO4 CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O
2. 3S + 2H2SO4 3SO2 + 2H2O
3. C + 2H2SO4 CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O
4. CaF2 + H2SO4 CaSO4 + 2HF

The correct order of the strengths of the carboxylic acids [figure] is

1. I > II > III
2. II > III > I
3. III > II > I
4. II > I > III

The correct structure of the product 'A' formed in the reaction [figure]

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Which one of the following nitro-compounds does not react with nitrous acid?

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

A given nitrogen-containing aromatic compound 'A' reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO2 to give an unstable compound 'B'. 'B', on treatment with phenol, forms a beautiful coloured compound 'C' with the molecular formula C12H10N2O. The structure of compound 'A' is

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the genetic information flows from

1. Amino acids Proteins DNA
2. DNA Carbohydrates Proteins
3. DNA RNA Proteins
4. DNA RNA Carbohydrates

The correct corresponding order of names of four aldoses with configuration given below [figure] respectively, is

1. L-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose, D-threose
2. D-threose, D-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose
3. L-erythrose, L-threose, D-erythrose, D-threose
4. D-erythrose, D-threose, L-erythrose, L-threose

The van't Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal solution?

1. Hmix = 0
2. Umix = 0
3. P = Pobs - Pcalculated by Raoult's law = 0
4. Gmix = 0

The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol/dm3 solution of AgNO3 with electrolytic conductivity of 5.76 10-3 S cm-1 at 298 K is

1. 2.88 S cm2/mol
2. 11.52 S cm2/mol
3. 0.086 S cm2/mol
4. 28.8 S cm2/mol

During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the time required to produce 0.10 mol of chlorine gas using a current of 3 amperes is

1. 55 minutes
2. 110 minutes
3. 220 minutes
4. 330 minutes

If the E cell for a given reaction has a negative value, which of the following gives the correct relationships for the values of G and Keq ?

1. G > 0; Keq < 1
2. G > 0; Keq > 1
3. G < 0; Keq > 1
4. G < 0; Keq < 1

The number of electrons delivered at the cathode during electrolysis by a current of 1 ampere in 60 seconds is (charge on electron = 1.60 10-19 C)

1. 6 1023
2. 6 1020
3. 3.75 1020
4. 7.48 1023

Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron but the reverse is not possible. It is because

1. zinc is lighter than iron
2. zinc has lower melting point than iron
3. zinc has lower negative electrode potential than iron
4. zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron

The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on tungsten at low pressure is a first-order reaction. It is because the

1. rate is proportional to the surface coverage
2. rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage
3. rate is independent of the surface coverage
4. rate of decomposition is very slow.

Boric acid is an acid because its molecule

1. contains replaceable H+ ion
2. gives up a proton
3. accepts OH- from water releasing proton
4. combines with proton from water molecule.

AlF3 is soluble in HF only in presence of KF. It is due to the formation of

1. K3[AlF3H3]
2. K3[AlF6]
3. AlH3
4. K[AlF3H]

Which one of the following statements related to lanthanoids is incorrect?

1. Europium shows +2 oxidation state.
2. The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases from Pr to Lu.
3. All the lanthanons are much more reactive than aluminium.
4. Ce(+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis.

The correct increasing order of trans-effect of the following species is

1. NH3 > CN- > Br- > C6H5-
2. CN- > C6H5- > Br- > NH3
3. Br- > CN- > NH3 > C6H5-
4. CN- > Br- > C6H5- > NH3

Jahn-Teller effect is not observed in high spin complexes of

1. d7
2. d8
3. d4
4. d9

The suspension of slaked lime in water is known as

1. lime water
2. quick lime
3. milk of lime
4. aqueous solution of slaked lime.

In context with beryllium, which one of the following statements is incorrect?

1. It is rendered passive by nitric acid.
2. It forms Be2C
3. Its salts rarely hydrolyze.
4. Its hydride is electron-deficient and polymeric.

Which one of the following structures represents nylon 6, 6 polymer?

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite structure, the coordination numbers for calcium ion ( Ca2+) and fluoride ion (F-) are

1. 4 and 2
2. 6 and 6
3. 8 and 4
4. 4 and 8

The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the electrolytes used for the coagulation of As2S3 are given below : I. (NaCl) = 52, II. (BaCl2) = 0.69, III. (MgSO4) = 0.22 The correct order of their coagulating power is

1. I > II > III
2. II > I > III
3. III > II > I
4. III > I > II

The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on

1. date of collection
2. name of collector
3. local names
4. height of the plant.

Match column I with column II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below.

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Study the four statements (A-D) given below and select the two correct ones out of them. The two correct statements are

1. B and C
2. C and D
3. A and D
4. A and B

Which one of the following is wrong for fungi?

1. They are eukaryotic.
2. All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall.
3. They are heterotrophic.
4. They are both unicellular and multicellular.

Methanogens belong to

1. eubacteria
2. archaebacteria
3. dinoflagellates
4. slime moulds.

Select the wrong statement.

1. The walls of diatoms are easily destructible.
2. 'Diatomaceous earth' is formed by the cell walls of diatoms.
3. Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans.
4. Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water.

Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions because of

1. broad hardy leaves
2. superficial stomata
3. thick cuticle
4. presence of vessels.

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

1. Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment.
2. Algin is obtained from red algae, and carrageenan from brown algae.
3. Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria.
4. Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food.

The term 'polyadelphous' is related to

1. gynoecium
2. androecium
3. corolla
4. calyx.

How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Aloe, mustard, groundnut, radish, gram and turnip have stamens with different lengths in their flowers?

1. Three
2. Four
3. Five
4. Six

Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of

1. Brassica
2. Trifolium
3. Pisum
4. Cassia.

Free-central placentation is found in

1. Dianthus
2. Argemone
3. Brassica
4. Citrus.

A non-proteinaceous enzyme is

1. lysozyme
2. ribozyme
3. ligase
4. deoxyribonuclease.

Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in establishing the three-dimensional folding of most proteins?

1. Hydrogen bonds
2. Electrostatic interaction
3. Hydrophobic interaction
4. Ester bonds

Which of the following describes the given graph correctly? [figure]

1. Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme.
2. Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme.
3. Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme.
4. Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme.

During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place on

1. S-phase
2. G1-phase
3. G2-phase
4. M phase

When cell has stalled DNA replication fork, which checkpoint should be predominantly activated?

1. G1/S
2. G2/M
3. M
4. Both G2/M and M

Match the stages of meiosis in column I to their characteristic features in column II and select the correct option using the codes given below.

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

The process which makes major difference between C3 and C4 plants is

1. glycolysis
2. Calvin cycle
3. photorespiration
4. respiration.

Which of the following biomolecules is common to respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?

1. Glucose-6-phosphate
2. Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate
3. Pyruvic acid
4. Acetyl CoA

Oxidative phosphorylation is

1. formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group from a substrate to ADP
2. oxidation of phosphate group in ATP
3. addition of phosphate group to ATP
4. formation of ATP by energy released from electrons removed during substrate oxidation.

You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of hormones would you add to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots?

1. IAA and gibberellin
2. Auxin and cytokinin
3. Auxin and abscisic acid
4. Gibberellin and abscisic acid

Phytochrome is a

1. flavoprotein
2. glycoprotein
3. lipoprotein
4. chromoprotein

In majority of angiosperms

1. egg has a filiform apparatus
2. there are numerous antipodal cells
3. reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cells
4. a small central cell is present in that embryo sac.

Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about by the agency of

1. water
2. insects or wind
3. birds
4. bats.

The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to

1. megasporangium
2. megasporophyll
3. megaspore mother cell
4. megaspore.

The mechanism that causes a gene to move from one linkage group to another is called

1. crossing-over
2. translocation
3. duplication
4. inversion

If a colour-blind man marries a woman who is homozygous for normal colour vision, the probability of their son being colour-blind is

1. 0.75
2. 0.5
3. 0
4. 1

Taylor conducted the experiments to prove semiconservative mode of chromosome replication on

1. Vicia faba
2. Drosophila melanogaster
3. Vinca rosea
4. E. coli

The equivalent of a structural gene is -

1. cistron
2. recon
3. muton
4. operon

Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria ?

1. 5.8 S rRNA
2. 23 S rRNA
3. 18 S rRNA
4. 5 S rRNA

A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the traits given below, except

1. it should be able to express itself in the form of ‘Mendelian characters’
2. it should be unstable structurally and chemically
3. it should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution
4. it should be able to generate its replica

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes transcription on one strand of the DNA which is called the

1. coding strand
2. antistrand
3. template strand
4. alpha strand

Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below –

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Which of the following is correct for r-selected species ?

1. Small number of progeny with small size
2. Small number of progeny with large size
3. Large number of progeny with small size
4. Large number of progeny with large size

If '+' sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, '–' sign to detrimental and '0' sign to neutral interaction, then the population interaction represented by '+' '–' refers to

1. parasitism
2. commensalism
3. mutualism
4. amensalism

The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by

1. MacArthur
2. G. F. Gause
3. Verhulst & Pearl
4. C. Darwin

The primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem are

1. chemosynthetic bacteria
2. coral reefs
3. green algae
4. blue-green algae

How many hot spots of biodiversity in the world have been identified till date by Norman Myers ?

1. 34
2. 17
3. 43
4. 25

Which of the following is correctly matched ?

1. Stratification-Population
2. Parthenium hysterophorus-Threat to biodiversity
3. Aerenchyma- Opuntia
4. Age pyramid-Biome

Red List contains data or information on

1. threatened species
2. marine vertebrates only
3. all economically important plants
4. plants whose products are in international trade

Which of the following National Parks is home to the famous musk deer or hangul ?

1. Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, Arunachal Pradesh
2. Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir
3. Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur
4. Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya Pradesh

Cortex is the region found between -

1. endodermis and pith
2. endodermis and vascular bundle
3. epidermis and stele
4. pericycle and endodermis

The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses

1. are extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into vessels
2. originate in the lumen of vessels
3. are linked to the ascent of sap through xylem vessels
4. characterize the sapwood

Select the mismatch.

1. Large central vacuoles – Animal cells
2. Methanogens – Prokaryotes
3. Gas vacuoles – Green bacteria
4. Protists – Eukaryotes

Select the wrong statement-

1. Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of bacterial cells
2. Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism
3. Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan
4. Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells.

A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes is

1. Ribosome
2. Mesosome
3. Lysosome
4. Microsome

A few drops of sap were collected by cutting across a plant stem by a suitable method. The sap was tested chemically. Which one of the following test results indicates that it is phloem sap?

1. Acidic
2. Alkaline
3. Low refractive index
4. Absence of sugar

Which is essential for the growth of root tip?

1. Zn
2. Fe
3. Ca
4. Mn

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

1. Offspring produced by the asexual reproduction are called clone.
2. Microscopic, motile, asexual reproductive structures are called zoospores.
3. In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise from the internodes present in the modified stem.
4. Water hyacinth, growing in the standing water, drains oxygen from water that leads to the death of fishes.

Which one of the following generates new genetic combinations leading to variation?

1. Vegetative reproduction
2. Parthenogenesis
3. Sexual reproduction
4. Nucellar polyembryony

Match column I with column II and select the correct option using the codes given below.

1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

A true breeding plant is -

1. produced due to cross-pollination among unrelated plants
2. one that is able to breed on its own
3. near homozygous and produces offspring of its own kind
4. always homozygous recessive in its genetic constitution

Interspecific hybridisation is the mating of

1. animals within same breed without having common ancestors
2. superior males and females of different breeds
3. more closely related individuals within same breed for 4-6 generations
4. two different related species

Among the following edible fishes, which one is a marine fish having rich source of omega-3 fatty acids ?

1. Mangur
2. Mystus
3. Mackerel
4. Mrigala

Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a good index for pollution for water bodies receiving effluents from

1. petroleum industry
2. sugar industry
3. domestic sewage
4. dairy industry

A lake which is rich in organic waste may result in

1. mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen
2. increased population of fish due to lots of nutrients
3. increased population of aquatic organisms due to minerals
4. drying of the lake due to algal bloom

The highest DDT concentration in aquatic food chain shall occur in

1. crab
2. Phytoplankton
3. eel
4. seagull

Choose the correct statement

1. All mammals are viviparous.
2. All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins.
3. All reptiles have a three-chambered heart.
4. All pisces have gills covered by an operculum.

The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is

1. equal to that in the blood
2. more than that in the blood
3. less than that in the blood
4. less than that of carbon dioxide.

Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can never be expelled because

1. there is a negative pressure in the lungs
2. there is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls
3. there is a positive intrapleural pressure
4. pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure.

Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the body.

1. Erythrocytes
2. Leucocytes
3. Neutrophils
4. Thrombocytes

Serum differs from blood in

1. lacking globulins
2. lacking albumins
3. lacking clotting factors
4. lacking antibodies.

The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of sodium is

1. distal convoluted tubule
2. proximal convoluted tubule
3. Bowman's capsule
4. descending limb of Henle's loop

Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during muscle contraction.

1. Calcium
2. Magnesium
3. Sodium
4. Potassium

Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to

1. immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue
2. high concentration of Ca++ and Na+
3. decreased level of estrogen
4. accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints.

Graves' disease is caused due to

1. hyposecretion of thyroid gland
2. hypersecretion of thyroid gland
3. hyposecretion of adrenal gland
4. hypersecretion of adrenal gland.

Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilisation.

1. Insulin
2. Glucagon
3. Secretin
4. Gastrin

The posterior pituitary gland is not a 'true' endocrine gland because

1. it is provided with a duct
2. it only stores and releases hormones
3. it is under the regulation of hypothalamus
4. it secretes enzymes.

Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms?

1. Rete testis Efferent ductules Epididymis Vas deferens
2. Rete testis Epididymis Efferent ductules Vas deferens
3. Rete testis Vas deferens Efferent ductules Epididymis
4. Efferent ductules Rete testis Vas deferens Epididymis

Match column I with column II and select the correct option using the codes given below.

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone are produced by

1. ovary
2. placenta
3. Fallopian tube
4. pituitary.

Which of the following is hormone releasing IUD ?

1. Lippes loop
2. LNG-20
3. Cu7
4. Multiload 375

Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy ?

1. No sperm occurs in epididymis
2. No sperm occurs in seminal fluid
3. Irreversible sterility
4. Vasa deferentia is cut and tied

Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilization is transferred into

1. fimbriae
2. cervix
3. uterus
4. fallopian tube

Genetic drift operates in

1. slow reproductive population
2. large isolated population
3. non-reproductive population
4. small isolated population

In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individual is represented by

1. pq
2. p2
3. 2pq
4. q2

The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is

1. Ramapithecus Homo habilis Australopithecus Homo erectus
2. Australopithecus Ramapithecus Homo habilis Homo erectus
3. Ramapithecus Australopithecus Homo habilis Homo erectus
4. Australopithecus Homo habilis Ramapithecus Homo erectus

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life ? I. Formation of protobionts II. Synthesis of organic monomers III. Synthesis of organic polymers IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic systems

1. II, III, I, IV
2. II, III, IV, I
3. I, II, III, IV
4. I, III, II, IV

Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria ?

1. Herpes and influenza
2. Cholera and tetanus
3. Tetanus and mumps
4. Typhoid and smallpox

Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV ?

1. HIV is unenveloped retrovirus
2. HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase.
3. HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response
4. HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase

Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for -

1. ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
2. addition of preservatives to the product
3. purification of product
4. availability of oxygen throughout the process

A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using

1. Eco RI
2. Polymerase III
3. Ligase
4. Taq polymerase

Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing ?

1. Purification
2. Expression
3. Preservation
4. Separation

Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends ?

1. Eco RV
2. Hind III
3. Xho I
4. Sal I

Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four-year-old girl with adenosine deaminase [ADA] deficiency ?

1. Radiation therapy
2. Immunotherapy
3. Gene therapy
4. Chemotherapy

In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the reproductive system ?

1. Vas deferens
2. Seminal vesicles
3. Testes
4. Mushroom glands

Smooth muscles are

1. involuntary, cylindrical, striated
2. involuntary, fusiform, non-striated
3. voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate
4. voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical

Which hormones do stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?

1. Angiotensin and epinephrine
2. Gastrin and insulin
3. Cholecystokinin and secretin
4. Insulin and glucagon

Choose the correct statement.

1. Nociceptors respond to changes in pressure.
2. Meissner's corpuscles are thermoreceptors.
3. Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarised during darkness and become hyperpolarised in response to the light stimulus.
4. Receptors do not produce graded potentials.