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200 questions with answers and solutions.

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Physics 50 questions

1

The magnetic potential energy, when a magnetic bar of magnetic moment m is placed perpendicular to the magnetic field B is

  1. - mB2
  2. Zero
  3. -mB
  4. mB
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2

A bob is whirled in a horizontal circle by means of a string at an initial speed of 10 rpm. If the tension in the string is quadrupled while keeping the radius constant, the new speed is:

  1. 20 rpm
  2. 40 rpm
  3. 5 rpm
  4. 10 rpm
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3

A metal cube of side 5 cm is charged with 6 . The surface charge density on the cube is

  1. 0.125 10-3 C m-2
  2. 0.25 10-3 C m-2
  3. 4 10-3 C m-2
  4. 0.4 10-3 C m-2
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4

The incorrect relation for a diamagnetic material (all the symbols carry their usual meaning and is a small positive number) is

  1. < 0
  2. 0 r < 1
  3. -1 < 0
  4. 1 < r < 1 +
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5

An ideal fluid is flowing in a non-uniform cross-sectional tube XY (as shown in the figure) from end X to end Y. If K1 and K2 are the kinetic energy per unit volume of the fluid at X and Y respectively, then the correct option is : [figure]

  1. K1 = K2
  2. 2K1 = K2
  3. K1 > K2
  4. K1 < K2
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6

The escape velocity for earth is v. A planet having 9 times mass that of earth and radius, 16 times that of earth, has the escape velocity of:

  1. v3
  2. 2v3
  3. 3v4
  4. 9v4
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7

An electron and an alpha particle are accelerated by the same potential difference. Let e and denote the de-Broglie wavelengths of the electron and the alpha particle, respectively, then:

  1. e >
  2. e = 4
  3. e =
  4. e <
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8

An object moving along horizontal x-direction with kinetic energy 10 J is displaced through x = (3 i) m by the force F = (-2 i + 3 j) N. The kinetic energy of the object at the end of the displacement x is

  1. 10 J
  2. 16 J
  3. 4 J
  4. 6 J
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9

An object falls from a height of 10 m above the ground. After striking the ground it loses 50\% of its kinetic energy. The height upto which the object can rebound from the ground is:

  1. 7.5 m
  2. 10 m
  3. 2.5 m
  4. 5 m
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10

In the circuit shown below, the inductance L is connected to an ac source. The current flowing in the circuit is I = I0 t. The voltage drop (VL) across L is [figure]

  1. L I0 t
  2. I0 L t
  3. I0 L t
  4. L I0 t
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11

A 12 pF capacitor is connected to a 50 V battery, the electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor in nJ is

  1. 15
  2. 7.5
  3. 0.3
  4. 150
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12

A uniform wire of diameter d carries a current of 100 mA when the mean drift velocity of electrons in the wire is v. For a wire of diameter d2 of the same material to carry a current of 200 mA, the mean drift velocity of electrons in the wire is

  1. 4v
  2. 8v
  3. v
  4. 2v
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13

In an electrical circuit, the voltage is measured as V = (200 4) volt and the current is measured as I = (20 0.2) A. The value of the resistance is:

  1. (10 4.2)
  2. (10 0.3)
  3. (10 0.1)
  4. (10 0.8)
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14

A step up transformer is connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V to operate at 11000 V, 88 watt. The current in the secondary circuit, ignoring the power loss in the transformer, is

  1. 8 mA
  2. 4 mA
  3. 0.4 A
  4. 4 A
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15

A particle is moving along x-axis with its position (x) varying with time (t) as x = t4 + t2 + t + . The ratio of its initial velocity to its initial acceleration, respectively, is:

  1. 2 :
  2. : 2
  3. 4 :
  4. : 2
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16

The radius of gyration of a solid sphere of mass 5 kg about XY is 5 m as shown in figure. The radius of the sphere is 5x 7 m, then the value of x is: [figure]

  1. 5
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 5
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17

[figure] The I-V characteristics shown above are exhibited by a

  1. Light emitting diode
  2. Zener diode
  3. Photodiode
  4. Solar cell
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18

The magnetic moment and moment of inertia of a magnetic needle as shown are, respectively, 1.0 10-2 A m2 and 10-6 2 kg m2. If it completes 10 oscillations in 10 s, the magnitude of the magnetic field is [figure]

  1. 0.4 T
  2. 4 T
  3. 0.4 mT
  4. 4 mT
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19

The capacitance of a capacitor with charge q and a potential difference V depends on

  1. both q and V
  2. the geometry of the capacitor
  3. q only
  4. V only
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20

Given below are two statements: In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
  2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
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21

A uniform metal wire of length l has 10 resistance. Now this wire is stretched to a length 2l and then bent to form a perfect circle. The equivalent resistance across any arbitrary diameter of that circle is

  1. 10
  2. 5
  3. 40
  4. 20
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22

The spectral series which corresponds to the electronic transition from the levels n2 = 5, 6, to the level n1 = 4 is

  1. Pfund series
  2. Brackett series
  3. Lyman series
  4. Balmer series
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23

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. A is true but R is false.
  2. A is false but R is true.
  3. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  4. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
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24

A particle executing simple harmonic motion with amplitude A has the same potential and kinetic energies at the displacement

  1. 2 A
  2. A2
  3. A 2
  4. A 2
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25

Two slits in Young's double slit experiment are 1.5 mm apart and the screen is placed at a distance of 1 m from the slits. If the wavelength of light used is 600 10-9 m then the fringe separation is

  1. 4 10-5 m
  2. 9 10-8 m
  3. 4 10-7 m
  4. 4 10-4 m
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26

Water is used as a coolant in a nuclear reactor because of its

  1. high thermal expansion coefficient
  2. high specific heat capacity
  3. low density
  4. low boiling point
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27

The pitch of an error free screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 100 divisions on the circular scale. While measuring the diameter of a thick wire, the pitch scale reads 1 mm and 63rd division on the circular scale coincides with the reference line. The diameter of the wire is:

  1. 1.63 cm
  2. 0.163 cm
  3. 0.163 m
  4. 1.63 m
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28

Let us consider two solenoids A and B, made from same magnetic material of relative permeability r and equal area of cross-section. Length of A is twice that of B and the number of turns per unit length in A is half that of B. The ratio of self inductances of the two solenoids, LA : LB is

  1. 1 : 2
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 8 : 1
  4. 1 : 8
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29

When the output of an OR gate is applied as input to a NOT gate, then the combination acts as a

  1. NAND gate
  2. NOR gate
  3. AND gate
  4. OR gate
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30

Interference pattern can be observed due to superposition of the following waves: Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. B and C
  2. B and D
  3. A and C
  4. A and B
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31

If is the work function of photosensitive material in eV and light of wavelength of numerical value = hce metre, is incident on it with energy above its threshold value at an instant then the maximum kinetic energy of the photo-electron ejected by it at that instant (Take h-Planck's constant, c-velocity of light in free space) is (in SI units):

  1. e + 2
  2. 2e -
  3. e - e
  4. e +
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32

The electromagnetic radiation which has the smallest wavelength are

  1. X-rays
  2. Gamma rays
  3. Ultraviolet rays
  4. Microwaves
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33

The equilibrium state of a thermodynamic system is described by Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  1. A, B and E only
  2. B, C and D only
  3. A, B and C only
  4. A, C and D only
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34

Some energy levels of a molecule are shown in the figure with their wavelengths of transitions. Then : [figure]

  1. 3 > 2, 1 = 2 2
  2. 3 > 2, 1 = 4 2
  3. 1 > 2, 2 = 2 3
  4. 2 > 1, 2 = 2 3
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35

A box of mass 5 kg is pulled by a cord, up along a frictionless plane inclined at 30 with the horizontal. The tension in the cord is 30 N. The acceleration of the box is (Take g = 10 m s-2)

  1. 2 m s-2
  2. Zero
  3. 0.1 m s-2
  4. 1 m s-2
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36

If the ratio of relative permeability and relative permittivity of a uniform medium is 1 : 4. The ratio of the magnitudes of electric field intensity (E) to the magnetic field intensity (H) of an EM wave propagating in that medium is (Given that 0 0 = 120 ):

  1. 30 : 1
  2. 1 : 120
  3. 60 : 1
  4. 120 : 1
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37

The value of electric potential at a distance of 9 cm from the point charge 4 10-7 C is [Given 14 0 = 9 109 N m2 C-2]:

  1. 4 102 V
  2. 44.4 V
  3. 4.4 105 V
  4. 4 104 V
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38

The displacement of a travelling wave y = C 2 (at - x) where t is time, x is distance and is the wavelength, all in S.I. units. Then the frequency of the wave is

  1. 2 a
  2. 2 a
  3. a
  4. a
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39

An object of mass 100 kg falls from point A to B as shown in figure. The change in its weight, corrected to the nearest integer is (RE is the radius of the earth) [figure]

  1. 49 N
  2. 89 N
  3. 5 N
  4. 10 N
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40

The potential energy of a particle moving along x-direction varies as V = Ax2 x + B. The dimensions of A2B are:

  1. [ M3/2 L1/2 T-3 ]
  2. [ M1/2LT-3 ]
  3. [ M2L1/2T-4 ]
  4. [ ML2 T-4 ]
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41

The two-dimensional motion of a particle, described by r = ( i + 2 j)A t is a/an: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. B, C and D only
  2. A, B and C only
  3. A, C and D only
  4. C and D only
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42

A beam of unpolarized light of intensity I0 is passed through a polaroid A, then through another polaroid B, oriented at 60 and finally through another polaroid C, oriented at 45 relative to B as shown. The intensity of emergent light is: [figure]

  1. I016
  2. I04
  3. I02
  4. I032
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43

Select the correct statements among the following : Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. A, B and C only
  2. A, B and D only
  3. A and B only
  4. C and D only
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44

Let 1, 2 and 3 be the angular speed of the second hand, minute hand and hour hand of a smoothly running analog clock, respectively. If x1, x2 and x3 are their respective angular distances in 1 minute then the factor which remains constant (k) is

  1. 1x1 = 2x2 = 3x3 = k
  2. 1 x1 = 2 x2 = 3 x3 = k
  3. 1 x12 = 2 x22 = 3 x32 = k
  4. 12 x1 = 22 x2 = 32 x3 = k
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45

The magnetic moment of an iron bar is M. It is now bent in such a way that it forms an arc section of a circle subtending an angle of 60 at the centre. The magnetic moment of this arc section is

  1. 3M
  2. 4M
  3. M
  4. 2M
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46

The given circuit shows a uniform straight wire AB of 40 cm length fixed at both ends. In order to get zero reading in the galvanometer G, the free end of J is to be placed from B at: [figure]

  1. 32 cm
  2. 8 cm
  3. 16 cm
  4. 24 cm
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47

According to the law of equipartition of energy, the number of vibrational modes of a polyatomic gas of constant = CPCV is (CP and CV are the specific heat capacities of the gas at constant pressure and constant volume, respectively):

  1. 4 + 3 - 1
  2. 3 + 4 - 1
  3. 4 - 3 - 1
  4. 3 - 4 - 1
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48

The output Y for the inputs A and B of the given logic circuit is: [figure]

  1. A B
  2. A B
  3. A + B
  4. A + B
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49

The amplitude of the charge oscillating in a circuit decreases exponentially as Q = Q0e-Rt/2L, where Q0 is the charge at t = 0 s. The time at which charge amplitude decreases to 0.50Q0 is nearly: [Given that R = 1.5 , L = 12 mH, (2) = 0.693]

  1. 19.01 ms
  2. 11.09 ms
  3. 19.01 s
  4. 11.09 s
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50

The steady state current in the circuit shown below is : [figure]

  1. 0.67 A
  2. 1.5 A
  3. 2 A
  4. 1 A
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Chemistry 50 questions

51

The correct decreasing order of atomic radii (pm) of Li, Be, B and C is

  1. Be > Li > B > C
  2. Li > Be > B > C
  3. C > B > Be > Li
  4. Li > C > Be > B
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52

Following data is for a reaction between reactants A and B : array|c|c|c| Rate ( mol L-1 s-1) & [A] & [B] \ 2 10-3 & 0.1 M & 0.1 M \ 4 10-3 & 0.2 M & 0.1 M \ 1.6 10-2 & 0.2 M & 0.2 M \ array The order of the reaction with respect to A and B, respectively, are

  1. 1, 0
  2. 0, 1
  3. 1, 2
  4. 2, 1
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53

Given below are two statements: In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
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54

Baeyer's reagent is :

  1. Acidic potassium permanganate solution
  2. Acidic potassium dichromate solution
  3. Cold, dilute, aqueous solution of potassium permanganate
  4. Hot, concentrated solution of potassium permanganate
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55

Which of the following molecules has "NON ZERO" dipole moment value?

  1. CCl4
  2. HI
  3. CO2
  4. BF3
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56

The major product X formed in the following reaction sequence is : [figure]

  1. [figure]
  2. [figure]
  3. [figure]
  4. [figure]
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57

Which indicator is used in the titration of sodium hydroxide against oxalic acid and what is the colour change at the end point?

  1. Phenolphthalein, pink to yellow
  2. Alkaline KMnO4, colourless to pink
  3. Phenolphthalein, colourless to pink
  4. Methyl orange, yellow to pinkish red colour
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58

Match List I with List II : Identify the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  2. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  3. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
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59

From the following select the one which is not an example of corrosion.

  1. Rusting of iron object
  2. Production of hydrogen by electrolysis of water
  3. Tarnishing of silver
  4. Development of green coating on copper and bronze ornaments
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60

Which of the following pairs of ions will have same spin only magnetic moment values within the pair? Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. C and D only
  2. A and D only
  3. A and B only
  4. B and C only
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61

At a given temperature and pressure, the equilibrium constant values for the equilibria are given below: 3A2 + B2 2A3B, K1 A3B 32A2 + 12B2, K2 The relation between K1 and K2 is :

  1. K12 = 2K2
  2. K2 = K12
  3. K1 = 1 K2
  4. K2 = 1 K1
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62

Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their solubilities in chloroform: NaCl, CH3OH, cyclohexane, CH3CN

  1. NaCl < CH3CN < CH3OH < Cyclohexane
  2. CH3OH < CH3CN < NaCl < Cyclohexane
  3. NaCl < CH3OH < CH3CN < Cyclohexane
  4. Cyclohexane < CH3CN < CH3OH < NaCl
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63

Identify the incorrect statement about PCl5.

  1. PCl5 possesses two different Cl-P-Cl bond angles
  2. All five P-Cl bonds are identical in length
  3. PCl5 exhibits sp3d hybridisation
  4. PCl5 consists of five P-Cl (sigma) bonds
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64

Choose the correct statement for the work done in the expansion and heat absorbed or released when 5 litres of an ideal gas at 10 atmospheric pressure isothermally expands into vacuum until volume is 15 litres :

  1. Both the heat and work done will be greater than zero
  2. Heat absorbed will be less than zero and work done will be positive
  3. Work done will be zero and heat will also be zero
  4. Work done will be greater than zero and heat will remain zero
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65

The correct IUPAC name of the compound [figure] is :

  1. 4-ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene
  2. 4-ethyl-1-fluoro-6-nitrobenzene
  3. 3-ethyl-6-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
  4. 1-ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene
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66

Which of the following set of ions act as oxidising agents?

  1. Ce4+ and Tb4+
  2. La3+ and Lu3+
  3. Eu2+ and Yb2+
  4. Eu2+ and Tb4+
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67

Select the incorrect reaction among the following :

  1. CH3COCl [ ]H2O CH3COOH
  2. [figure]
  3. CH3CH2OH [(ii) H3O ](i) KMnO4/OH- CH3COOH
  4. CH3CH2CH2OH CrO3-H2SO4 CH3CH2COOH
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68

The UV-visible absorption bands in the spectra of lanthanoid ions are 'X', probably because of the excitation of electrons involving 'Y'. The 'X' and 'Y', respectively, are :

  1. Broad and f orbitals
  2. Narrow and f orbitals
  3. Broad and d and f orbitals
  4. Narrow and d and f orbitals
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69

Ethylene diaminetetraacetate ion is a/an:

  1. hexadentate ligand
  2. ambidentate ligand
  3. monodentate ligand
  4. bidentate ligand
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70

The amount of glucose required to prepare 250 mL of M20 aqueous solution is : (Molar mass of glucose : 180 g mol-1)

  1. 2.25 g
  2. 4.5 g
  3. 0.44 g
  4. 1.125 g
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71

Identify the incorrect statement from the following :

  1. The acidic strength of HX (X = F, Cl, Br and I) follows the order: HF > HCl > HBr > HI.
  2. Fluorine exhibits -1 oxidation state whereas other halogens exhibit +1, +3, +5 and +7 oxidation states also.
  3. The enthalpy of dissociation of F2 is smaller than that of Cl2.
  4. Fluorine is stronger oxidising agent than chlorine.
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72

For the reaction in equilibrium N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g), H = -Q Reaction is favoured in forward direction by:

  1. use of catalyst
  2. decreasing concentration of N2
  3. low pressure, high temperature and high concentration of ammonia
  4. high pressure, low temperature and higher concentration of H2
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73

The major product D formed in the following reaction sequence is : [figure]

  1. [figure]
  2. [figure]
  3. CH3CH2OH
  4. CH3CH2Cl
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74

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  2. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  3. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
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75

Which of the following is not an ambidentate ligand?

  1. C2O42-
  2. SCN-
  3. NO2-
  4. CN-
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76

The quantum numbers of four electrons are given below : I. n = 4; l = 2; ml = -2; s = - 12 II. n = 3; l = 2; ml = 1; s = + 12 III. n = 4; l = 1; ml = 0; s = + 12 IV. n = 3; l = 1; ml = -1; s = + 12 The correct decreasing order of energy of these electrons is

  1. IV > II > III > I
  2. I > III > II > IV
  3. III > I > II > IV
  4. I > II > III > IV
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77

The major product C in the below mentioned reaction is: CH3CH2CH2Br [ ]alc. KOH A HBr B [ ]aq. KOH C

  1. Propan-1-ol
  2. Propan-2-ol
  3. Propane
  4. Propyne
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78

The compound that does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction but gives a positive carbylamine test is :

  1. Aniline
  2. Pyridine
  3. N-methylaniline
  4. Triethylamine
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79

For an endothermic reaction: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. B and D
  2. C and D
  3. A and B
  4. A and C
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80

1.0 g of H2 has same number of molecules as in:

  1. 14 g of N2
  2. 18 g of H2O
  3. 16 g of CO
  4. 28 g of N2
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81

Which of the following plot represents the variation of k versus 1T in accordance with Arrhenius equation?

  1. [figure]
  2. [figure]
  3. [figure]
  4. [figure]
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82

A steam volatile organic compound which is immiscible with water has a boiling point of 250 C. During steam distillation, a mixture of this organic compound and water will boil :

  1. above 100 C but below 250 C
  2. above 250 C
  3. at 250 C
  4. close to but below 100 C
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83

Given below are two statements : In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  2. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
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84

The oxidation states not shown by Mn in given reaction are : 3MnO42- + 4H+ 2MnO4- + MnO2 + 2H2O Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. D and E only
  2. B and D only
  3. A and B only
  4. B and E only
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85

Given below are two statements: In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  2. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
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86

Identify D in the following sequence of reactions: [figure]

  1. n-propyl alcohol
  2. isopropyl alcohol
  3. propanal
  4. propionic acid
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87

Identify the incorrect statement.

  1. PEt3 and AsPh3 as ligands can form d - d bond with transition metals
  2. The N - N single bond is as strong as the P - P single bond
  3. Nitrogen has unique ability to form p - p multiple bonds with nitrogen, carbon and oxygen
  4. Nitrogen cannot form d - p bond as other heavier elements of its group
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88

Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  2. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
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89

Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  2. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
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90

The standard cell potential of the following cell Zn | Zn2+(aq) || Fe2+(aq) | Fe is 0.32 V. Calculate the standard Gibbs energy change for the reaction: Zn(s) + Fe2+(aq) Zn2+(aq) + Fe(s) (Given : 1 F = 96487 C)

  1. -61.75 kJ mol-1
  2. +5.006 kJ mol-1
  3. -5.006 kJ mol-1
  4. +61.75 kJ mol-1
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91

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
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92

The ratio of solubility of AgCl in 0.1 M KCl solution to the solubility of AgCl in water is: (Given : Solubility product of AgCl = 10-10)

  1. 10-4
  2. 10-6
  3. 10-9
  4. 10-5
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93

On complete combustion, 0.3 g of an organic compound gave 0.2 g of CO2 and 0.1 g of H2O. The percentage composition of carbon and hydrogen in the compound, respectively is:

  1. 4.07% and 15.02%
  2. 18.18% and 3.70%
  3. 15.02% and 4.07%
  4. 3.70% and 18.18%
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94

The following reaction method [figure] is not suitable for the preparation of the corresponding haloarene products, due to high reactivity of halogen, when X is :

  1. F
  2. I
  3. Cl
  4. Br
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95

The alkane that can be oxidized to the corresponding alcohol by KMnO4 as per the equation [figure] is, when :

  1. R1 = H; R2 = H; R3 = H
  2. R1 = CH3; R2 = CH3; R3 = CH3
  3. R1 = CH3; R2 = H; R3 = H
  4. R1 = CH3; R2 = CH3; R3 = H
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96

For the following reaction at 300 K A2(g) + 3B2(g) 2AB3(g) the enthalpy change is +15 kJ, then the internal energy change is :

  1. 19988.4 J
  2. 200 J
  3. 1999 J
  4. 1.9988 kJ
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97

Rate constants of a reaction at 500 K and 700 K are 0.04 s-1 and 0.14 s-1, respectively; then, activation energy of the reaction is : (Given: 3.5 = 0.5441, R = 8.31 J K-1 mol-1)

  1. 182310 J
  2. 18500 J
  3. 18219 J
  4. 18030 J
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98

Mass of glucose ( C6H12O6) required to be dissolved to prepare one litre of its solution which is isotonic with 15 g L-1 solution of urea (NH2CONH2) is (Given: Molar mass in g mol-1 C : 12, H : 1, O : 16, N : 14)

  1. 55 g
  2. 15 g
  3. 30 g
  4. 45 g
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99

[ Mn2(CO)10] and [Co2(CO)8] structures have Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. Only A, B, C
  2. Only B, C, D
  3. Only A, C, D
  4. Only A, B, D
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100

Methyl group attached to a positively charged carbon atom stabilizes the carbocation due to

  1. -I inductive effect
  2. electromeric effect
  3. hyperconjugation
  4. mesomeric effect
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Botany 56 questions

101

The regions with high level of species richness, high degree of endemism and a loss of 70\% of the species and habitat are identified as:

  1. Natural Reserves
  2. Sacred Groves
  3. Biodiversity Hotspots
  4. Biogeographical Regions
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102

Which of the following simple tissues are commonly found in the fruit walls of nuts and pulp of pear?

  1. Sclereids
  2. Fibres
  3. Parenchyma
  4. Collenchyma
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103

Given below are two statements: In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  2. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
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104

Which of the following are required for the light reaction of Photosynthesis? Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, C, D and E only
  2. C, D and E only
  3. A and B only
  4. A, C and E only
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105

Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  2. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  4. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
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106

Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  3. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  4. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
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107

Which part of the ovule stores reserve food materials?

  1. Nucellus
  2. Integument
  3. Placenta
  4. Funicle
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108

Which one of the following is not found in Gymnosperms?

  1. Sieve cells
  2. Albuminous cells
  3. Tracheids
  4. Vessels
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109

Which one of the following is not included under in-situ conservation?

  1. Wild-life sanctuary
  2. Botanical garden
  3. Biosphere reserve
  4. National park
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110

Pollen grains remain preserved as fossils due to the presence of :

  1. Epidermal layer
  2. Tapetum
  3. Exine layer
  4. Intine layer
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111

Identify the incorrect pair :

  1. Sphenopsida – Adiantum
  2. Pteropsida – Dryopteris
  3. Psilopsida – Psilotum
  4. Lycopsida – Selaginella
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112

Which of the following is the correct match?

  1. Gymnosperms : Cedrus, Pinus, Sequoia
  2. Angiosperms : Wolffia, Eucalyptus, Sequoia
  3. Bryophytes : Polytrichum, Polysiphonia, Sphagnum
  4. Pteridophytes : Equisetum, Ginkgo, Adiantum
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113

Given below are two statements regarding RNA polymerase in prokaryotes. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  2. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
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114

Which of the following is a nucleotide?

  1. Uridine
  2. Adenylic acid
  3. Guanine
  4. Guanosine
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115

Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  2. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  3. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  4. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
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116

Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
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117

Which of the following helps in maintenance of the pressure gradient in sieve tubes?

  1. Albuminous cells
  2. Sieve cells
  3. Phloem parenchyma
  4. Companion cells
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118

Mesosome in a cell is a :

  1. Membrane bound vesicular structure
  2. Chain of many ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
  3. Special structure formed by extension of plasma membrane
  4. Medium sized chromosome
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119

Match List-I with List-II :

  1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  2. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  4. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
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120

Match List-I with List-II:

  1. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  2. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  3. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  4. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
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121

Cryopreservation technique is used for :

  1. Protection of environment
  2. Protection of Biodiversity hotspots
  3. Preservation of gametes in viable and fertile condition for a long period
  4. In-situ conservation
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122

Which of the following are correct about cellular respiration? Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A, C, D, E only
  2. A, B, E only
  3. A, B, C, E only
  4. B, C, D, E only
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123

Given below are two statements: In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
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124

Match List-I with List-II:

  1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  2. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
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125

Given below are two statements: In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  2. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
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126

Recombination between homologous chromosomes is completed by the end of

  1. Diakinesis
  2. Zygotene
  3. Diplotene
  4. Pachytene
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127

Match List-I with List-II :

  1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  2. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  4. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
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128

Ligases is a class of enzymes responsible for catalysing the linking together of two compounds. Which of the following bonds is not catalysed by it?

  1. C – C
  2. P – O
  3. C – O
  4. C – N
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129

F. Skoog observed that callus proliferated from the internodal segments of tobacco stem when auxin was supplied with one of the following except :

  1. Extract of Vascular tissues
  2. Coconut milk
  3. Abscisic acid
  4. Yeast Extract
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130

Given below are some statements about plant growth regulators. Choose the correct set of statements from the options given below :

  1. A, C, D
  2. B, E
  3. A, B, C
  4. B, D, E
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131

Which of the following examples show monocarpellary, unilocular ovary with many ovules? Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. B and E only
  2. C, D and E only
  3. A, B and D only
  4. A and C only
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132

Given below are two statements : In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  2. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
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133

The part marked as ‘x’ in the given figure is [Figure]

  1. Endosperm
  2. Thalamus
  3. Endocarp
  4. Mesocarp
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134

Given below are two statements: In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  2. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
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135

Which of the following are not fatty acids? Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. C, D and E only
  2. A and B only
  3. A, D and E only
  4. B and C only
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136

Consider the pyramid of energy of an ecosystem given below: [figure] If T4 is equivalent to 1000 J, what is the value at T1 ?

  1. 1000010 J
  2. 1000010 4 J
  3. 10,000 J
  4. 10,00,000 J
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137

Which one of the following products diffuses out of the chloroplast during photosynthesis?

  1. ADP
  2. NADPH
  3. O2
  4. ATP
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138

Which one of the following is not a limitation of ecological pyramids?

  1. Saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids
  2. It assumes a simple food chain, that almost never exists in nature
  3. It accommodates a food web
  4. It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels
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139

Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  2. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  4. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
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140

Which of the following graphs depicts the effect of substrate concentration on velocity of enzyme catalysed reaction?

  1. [figure]
  2. [figure]
  3. [figure]
  4. [figure]
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141

When will the population density increase, under special conditions? When the number of :

  1. Deaths exceeds number of births and also number of emigrants equals number of immigrants.
  2. Births plus number of immigrants equals number of deaths plus number of emigrants.
  3. Births plus number of emigrants is more than the number of deaths plus number of immigrants.
  4. Births plus number of immigrants is more than the sum of number of deaths and number of emigrants.
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142

When a tall pea plant with round seeds was selfed, it produced the progeny of : (a) Tall plants with round seeds and (b) Tall plants with wrinkled seeds. Identify the genotype of the parent plant.

  1. TtRr
  2. TtRR
  3. TTRR
  4. TTRr
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143

Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  3. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  4. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
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144

Observe the given figure. Identify the different stages labelled with alphabets by selecting the correct option. [figure]

  1. A-Carboxylation, B-Regeneration, C-Reduction
  2. A-Reduction, B-Decarboxylation, C-Regeneration
  3. A-Carboxylation, B-Reduction, C-Regeneration
  4. A-Reduction, B-Carboxylation, C-Regeneration
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145

Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  2. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  3. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  4. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
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146

Enzymes that catalyse the removal of groups from substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds, are known as :

  1. Transferases
  2. Oxidoreductases
  3. Dehydrogenases
  4. Lyases
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147

Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  2. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  3. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  4. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
148

Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  2. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  3. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
149

Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  2. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  3. A-I, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
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150

Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  2. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  3. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  4. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
151

Match List-I with List-II relating to microbes and their products: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  3. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  4. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
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152

Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  2. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  3. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
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153

Aneuploidy is a chromosomal disorder where chromosome number is not the exact copy of its haploid set of chromosomes, due to : Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. C and D only
  2. D and E only
  3. A and B only
  4. B and C only
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154

Given below are two statements : In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  2. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
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155

The mother has A+ blood group, the father has B+ and the child is A+. What can be the possibility of genotypes of all three, respectively? Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. C and D
  2. D and A
  3. A and B
  4. B and E
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156

What do 'a' and 'b' represent in the following population growth curve? [figure]

  1. ‘a’ represents exponential growth when resources are not limiting the growth; and ‘b’ represents logistic growth when resources are limiting the growth.
  2. ‘a’ represents logistic growth when resources are not limiting the growth; ‘b’ represents exponential growth when resources are limiting the growth.
  3. ‘a’ represents carrying capacity and ‘b’ shows logistic growth when resources are limiting the growth.
  4. ‘a’ represents exponential growth when resources are not limiting the growth and ‘b’ shows carrying capacity.
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Zoology 44 questions

157

In a chromosome, there is a specific DNA sequence, responsible for initiating replication. It is called as:

  1. Recognition sequence
  2. Cloning site
  3. Restriction site
  4. ori site
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158

Given below are two statements: In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  2. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
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159

Match List-I with List-II :

  1. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  3. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
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160

Identify the incorrect statement related to gel electrophoresis.

  1. Separated DNA fragments can be directly seen under UV radiation
  2. Separated DNA can be extracted from gel piece
  3. Fragment of DNA moves toward anode
  4. Sieving effect of agarose gel helps in separation of DNA fragments
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161

Recombinant DNA molecule can be created normally by cutting the vector DNA and source DNA respectively with:

  1. Hind II, Hind II
  2. Hind II, Alu I
  3. Hind II, EcoR I
  4. Hind II, BamHI
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162

The Bt toxin in genetically engineered Bt cotton kills the pest by:

  1. Creating pores in the midgut
  2. Damaging the respiratory system
  3. Degenerating the nervous system
  4. Altering the pH of body fluids
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163

Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  2. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  3. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  4. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
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164

Following are the steps involved in action of toxin in Bt. Cotton Choose the correct sequence of steps from the options given below:

  1. E C B A D
  2. B C A E D
  3. A E B D C
  4. B E C A D
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165

Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  2. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  4. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
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166

Which evolutionary phenomenon is depicted by the sketch given in figure? [Figure]

  1. Artificial selection
  2. Genetic drift
  3. Convergent evolution
  4. Adaptive radiation
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167

A person with blood group ARh- can receive the blood transfusion from which of the following types? Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. D and E only
  2. D only
  3. A and B only
  4. C and D only
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168

Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  2. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  4. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
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169

Which of the following statements is correct about the type of junction and their role in our body?

  1. Adhering junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other.
  2. Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
  3. Tight junctions help to perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
  4. Gap junctions help to create gap between the cells and tissues.
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170

Select the restriction endonuclease enzymes whose restriction sites are present for the tetracycline resistance (tetR) gene in the pBR322 cloning vector.

  1. Bam HI and Sal I
  2. Sal I and Pst I
  3. Pst I and Pvu I
  4. Pvu I and Bam HI
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171

Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  2. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  3. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
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172

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  1. A is correct but R is not correct.
  2. A is not correct but R is correct.
  3. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
  4. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
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173

Match List-I with List-II with respect to convergent evolution: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  2. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  4. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
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174

Match List-I with List-II relating to examples of various kind of IUDs and barrier: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  2. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
175

Given below are two statements: In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
176

Arrange the following parts in human Mammary gland, traversing the route of milk ejection. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. D C E A B
  2. C E B A D
  3. C E A D B
  4. A C E D B
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
177

Which of the following are correct about EcoRI? Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. B, C, E only
  2. A, D, E only
  3. A, C, D only
  4. B, C, D only
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
178

Which of the following is/are present in female cockroach? Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. B and D only
  2. B and E only
  3. A only
  4. A and C only
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
179

Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  4. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
180

Open Circulatory system is present in :

  1. Palaemon, Nereis, Balanoglossus
  2. Hirudinaria, Bombyx, Salpa
  3. Anopheles, Limax, Limulus
  4. Pheretima, Musca, Pila
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
181

In which of the following connective tissues, the cells secrete fibres of collagen or elastin? Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. B, C, D and E only
  2. A, B, C and E only
  3. B, C and D only
  4. A, C and D only
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
182

Which of the following pairs is an incorrect match?

  1. Annelids and arthropods-Bilateral symmetry
  2. Sponges-Acoelomates
  3. Coelenterates and Ctenophores-Radial symmetry
  4. Platyhelminthes-Diploblastic organisation
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
183

Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  2. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  3. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
184

Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  2. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  3. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
185

Match List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  2. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
186

Diuresis is prevented by:

  1. Renin from JG cell via switching off the osmoreceptors
  2. ANF from atria of the heart
  3. Aldosterone from adrenal medulla
  4. Vasopressin from Neurohypophysis
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
187

Following is the list of STDs. Select the diseases which are not completely curable. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A and D only
  2. B and D only
  3. A and C only
  4. D and E only
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
188

What is the correct order (old to recent) of periods in Paleozoic era?

  1. Silurian, Devonian, Permian, Carboniferous
  2. Silurian, Devonian, Carboniferous, Permian
  3. Permian, Devonian, Silurian, Carboniferous
  4. Silurian, Carboniferous, Permian, Devonian
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
189

'Lub' sound of Heart is caused by the .

  1. closure of the semilunar valves
  2. opening of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
  3. opening of the semilunar valves
  4. closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
190

Match List-I with List-II relating to human female external genitalia. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  3. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
191

Given below are two statements : In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  2. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
192

Identify the wrong statements : Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. D and E only
  2. A and B only
  3. C and E only
  4. A and C only
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
193

Following are the steps involved in the process of PCR. Choose the correct sequence of steps of PCR from the options given below :

  1. C A D E B
  2. A B E D C
  3. A C E D B
  4. D B E C A
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
194

Given below are two statements: In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
195

Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  2. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
196

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. A is true but R is false.
  2. A is false but R is true
  3. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  4. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
197

Select the correct statements regarding mechanism of muscle contraction. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. B, C and E only
  2. C, D and E only
  3. A and D only
  4. B, D and E only
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
198

Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  2. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  3. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
199

Match List I with List II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  2. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  3. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
RE-NEET (UG) 2024
200

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. A is true but R is false.
  2. A is false but R is true.
  3. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  4. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
RE-NEET (UG) 2024