NEET 2013 (Karnataka)

The pair of quantities having same dimensions is

1. Impulse and Surface Tension
2. Angular momentum and Work
3. Work and Torque
4. Young's modulus and Energy

The displacement 'x' (in meter) of a particle of mass 'm' (in kg) moving in one dimension under the action of a force, is related to time 't' (in sec) by t = x + 3. The displacement of the particle when its velocity is zero, will be

1. 4 m
2. 0 m (zero)
3. 6 m
4. 2 m

Vectors A, B and C are such that A B = 0 and A C = 0. Then the vector parallel to A is

1. A B
2. B + C
3. B C
4. B and C

A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of radius 10 m with a constant speed of 10 m/s. A bob is suspended from the roof of the car by a light wire of length 1.0 m. The angle made by the wire with the vertical is

1. 3
2. 6
3. 4
4. 0

A person holding a rifle (mass of person and rifle together is 100 kg) stands on a smooth surface and fires 10 shots horizontally, in 5 s. Each bullet has a mass of 10 g with a muzzle velocity of 800 m s-1. The final velocity acquired by the person and the average force exerted on the person are :

1. -0.08 m s-1, 16 N
2. -0.8 m s-1, 16 N
3. -1.6 m s-1, 16 N
4. -1.6 m s-1, 8 N

A particle with total energy E is moving in a potential energy region U(x). Motion of the particle is restricted to the region when

1. U(x) < E
2. U(x) = 0
3. U(x) E
4. U(x) > E

One coolie takes 1 minute to raise a suitcase through a height of 2 m but the second coolie takes 30 s to raise the same suitcase to the same height. The powers of two coolies are in the ratio

1. 1 : 3
2. 2 : 1
3. 3 : 1
4. 1 : 2

The ratio of radii of gyration of a circular ring and a circular disc, of the same mass and radius, about an axis passing through their centres and perpendicular to their planes are

1. 1 : 2
2. 3 : 2
3. 2 : 1
4. 2 : 1

Two discs are rotating about their axes, normal to the discs and passing through the centres of the discs. Disc D1 has 2 kg mass and 0.2 m radius and initial angular velocity of 50 rad s-1. Disc D2 has 4 kg mass, 0.1 m radius and initial angular velocity of 200 rad s-1. The two discs are brought in contact face to face, with their axes of rotation coincident. The final angular velocity (in rad s-1) of the system is

1. 60
2. 100
3. 120
4. 40

The radius of a planet is twice the radius of earth. Both have almost equal average mass densities. VP and VE are escape velocities of the planet and the earth, respectively, then

1. VP = 1.5 VE
2. VP = 2 VE
3. VE = 3 VP
4. VE = 1.5 VP

A particle of mass 'm' is kept at rest at a height 3R from the surface of earth, where 'R' is radius of earth and 'M' is mass of earth. The minimum speed with which it should be projected, so that it does not return back, is (g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth)

1. ( GM2R )1/2
2. ( gR4 )1/2
3. ( 2gR )1/2
4. ( GMR )1/2

If the ratio of diameters, lengths and Young's modulus of steel and copper wires shown in the figure are p, q and s respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths would be [figure]

1. ( 5q7sp2 )
2. ( 7q5sp2 )
3. ( 2q5sp )
4. ( 7q5sp )

Two metal rods 1 and 2 of same lengths have same temperature difference between their ends. Their thermal conductivities are K1 and K2 and cross sectional areas A1 and A2, respectively. If the rate of heat conduction in 1 is four times that in 2, then

1. K1A1 = 4K2A2
2. K1A1 = 2K2A2
3. 4K1A1 = K2A2
4. K1A1 = K2A2

A fluid is in streamline flow across a horizontal pipe of variable area of cross section. For this which of the following statements is correct?

1. The velocity is maximum at the narrowest part of the pipe and pressure is maximum at the widest part of the pipe.
2. Velocity and pressure both are maximum at the narrowest part of the pipe.
3. Velocity and pressure both are maximum at the widest part of the pipe.
4. The velocity is minimum at the narrowest part of the pipe and the pressure is minimum at the widest part of the pipe.

The density of water at 20 is 998 kg/m3 and at 40 is 992 kg/m3. The coefficient of volume expansion of water is

1. 3 10-4/
2. 2 10-4/
3. 6 10-4/
4. 10 10-4/

A system is taken from state a to state c by two paths adc and abc as shown in the figure. The internal energy at a is Ua = 10 J. Along the path adc the amount of heat absorbed dQ1 = 50 J and the work obtained dW1 = 20 J whereas along the path abc the heat absorbed dQ2 = 36 J. The amount of work along the path abc is [figure]

1. 10 J
2. 12 J
3. 36 J
4. 6 J

Which of the following relations does not give the equation of an adiabatic process, where terms have their usual meaning?

1. P1- T = constant
2. PV = constant
3. TV -1 = constant
4. P T1- = constant

Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in series. The engine A receives heat from the source at temperature T1 and rejects the heat to the sink at temperature T. The second engine B receives the heat at temperature T and rejects to its sink at temperature T2. For what values of T the efficiencies of the two engines are equal

1. T1 - T22
2. T1T2
3. T1T2
4. T1 + T22

In a vessel, the gas is at pressure P. If the mass of all the molecules is halved and their speed is doubled, then the resultant pressure will be

1. 2P
2. P
3. P/2
4. 4P

A particle of mass m oscillates along x-axis according to equation x = a t. The nature of the graph between momentum and displacement of the particle is

1. Circle
2. Hyperbola
3. Ellipse
4. Straight line passing through origin

The length of the wire between two ends of a sonometer is 100 cm. What should be the positions of two bridges below the wire so that the three segments of the wire have their fundamental frequencies in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5.

1. 150023 cm, 50023 cm
2. 150023 cm, 30023 cm
3. 30023 cm, 150023 cm
4. 150023 cm, 200023 cm

An electric dipole of dipole moment p is aligned parallel to a uniform electric field E. The energy required to rotate the dipole by 90 is

1. p2E
2. pE
3. infinity
4. pE2

A charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q. The system of the three charges will be in equilibrium if q is equal to

1. -Q/4
2. Q/4
3. -Q/2
4. Q/2

Two rods are joined end to end, as shown. Both have a cross-sectional area of 0.01 cm2. Each is 1 meter long. One rod is of copper with a resistivity of 1.7 10-6 ohm-centimeter, the other is of iron with a resistivity of 10-5 ohm-centimeter. [figure] How much voltage is required to produce a current of 1 ampere in the rods?

1. 0.00145 V
2. 0.0145 V
3. 1.7 10-6 V
4. 0.117 V

A 12 cm wire is given a shape of a right angled triangle ABC having sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm as shown in the figure. The resistance between two ends (AB, BC, CA) of the respective sides are measured one by one. Their ratio is [figure]

1. 9 : 16 : 25
2. 27 : 32 : 35
3. 21 : 24 : 25
4. 3 : 4 : 5

Ten identical cells connected in series are needed to heat a wire of length one meter and radius 'r' by 10 in time 't'. How many cells will be required to heat the wire of length two meter of the same radius by the same temperature in time 't' ?

1. 20
2. 30
3. 40
4. 10

A long straight wire carries a certain current and produces a magnetic field 2 10-4 Wb m-2 at a perpendicular distance of 5 cm from the wire. An electron situated at 5 cm from the wire moves with a velocity 107 m/s towards the wire along perpendicular to it. The force experienced by the electron will be (charge on electron 1.6 10-19 C)

1. 3.2 N
2. 3.2 10-16 N
3. 1.6 10-16 N
4. zero

A circular coil ABCD carrying a current 'i' is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic force on the segment AB is F, the force on the remaining segment BCDA is [figure]

1. - F
2. 3 F
3. -3 F
4. F

A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is placed at right angles to a magnetic induction B. If a force F is experienced by each pole of the magnet, the length of the magnet will be

1. MB/F
2. BF/M
3. MF/B
4. F/MB

The primary of a transformer when connected to a dc battery of 10 Volt draws a current of 1 mA. The number of turns of the primary and secondary windings are 50 and 100 respectively. The voltage in the secondary and the current drawn by the circuit in the secondary are respectively

1. 20 V and 2.0 mA
2. 10 V and 0.5 mA
3. Zero volt and therefore no current
4. 20 V and 0.5 mA

A current of 2.5 A flows through a coil of inductance 5 H. The magnetic flux linked with the coil is

1. 0.5 Wb
2. 12.5 Wb
3. zero
4. 2 Wb

An electromagnetic wave of frequency = 3.0 MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric medium with relative permittivity r = 4.0. Then

1. Wavelength is doubled and frequency becomes half.
2. Wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged.
3. Wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged.
4. Wavelength is doubled and frequency unchanged.

In Young's double slit experiment the distance between the slits and the screen is doubled. The separation between the slits is reduced to half. As a result the fringe width

1. is halved
2. becomes four times
3. remains unchanged
4. is doubled

A parallel beam of light of wavelength is incident normally on a narrow slit. A diffraction pattern is formed on a screen placed perpendicular to the direction of the incident beam. At the second minimum of the diffraction pattern, the phase difference between the rays coming from the two edges of slit is

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4

The reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise and sunset is due to

1. the scattering of light
2. the polarisation of light
3. the colour of the sun
4. the colour of the sky

Two plane mirrors are inclined at 70 . A ray incident on one mirror at angle , after reflection falls on second mirror and is reflected from there parallel to first mirror. The value of is

1. 45
2. 30
3. 55
4. 50

A source of light is placed at a distance of 50 cm from a photo cell and the stopping potential is found to be V0. If the distance between the light source and photo cell is made 25 cm, the new stopping potential will be :

1. V0/2
2. V0
3. 4V0
4. 2V0

The de-broglie wavelength of neutrons in thermal equilibrium at temperature T is

1. 3.08 T A
2. 0.308 T A
3. 0.0308 T A
4. 30.8 T A

How does the Binding Energy per nucleon vary with the increase in the number of nucleons ?

1. Decreases continuously with mass number.
2. First decreases and then increases with increase in mass number.
3. First increases and then decreases with increase in mass number.
4. Increases continuously with mass number.

An electron in hydrogen atom makes a transition n1 n2 where n1 and n2 are principal quantum numbers of the two states. Assuming Bohr's model to be valid, the time period of the electron in the initial state is eight times that in the final state. The possible values of n1 and n2 are

1. n1 = 6 and n2 = 2
2. n1 = 8 and n2 = 1
3. n1 = 8 and n2 = 2
4. n1 = 4 and n2 = 2

The output from a NAND gate is divided into two in parallel and fed to another NAND gate. The resulting gate is a [figure]

1. AND gate
2. NOR gate
3. OR gate
4. NOT gate

In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from the p-region to n-region because of

1. The attraction of free electrons of n-region.
2. The higher hole concentration in p-region than that in n-region.
3. The higher concentration of electrons in the n-region than that in the p-region.
4. The potential difference across the p-n junction.

Two sources P and Q produce notes of frequency 660 Hz each. A listener moves from P to Q with a speed of 1 m s-1. If the speed of sound is 330 m/s, then the number of beats heard by the listener per second will be

1. 4
2. 8
3. 2
4. zero

-particles, -particles and -rays are all having same energy. Their penetrating power in a given medium in increasing order will be

1. , ,
2. , ,
3. , ,
4. , ,

One way in which the operation of an n-p-n transistor differs from that of a p-n-p is

1. The emitter junction injects minority carriers into the base region of the p-n-p
2. The emitter injects holes into the base of the p-n-p and electrons into the base region of n-p-n
3. The emitter injects holes into the base of n-p-n
4. The emitter junction is reverse biased in n-p-n

In an experiment it showed that 10 mL of 0.05 M solution of chloride required 10 mL of 0.1 M solution of AgNO3, which of the following will be the formula of the chloride (X stands for the symbol of the element other than chlorine)

1. X2Cl2
2. XCl2
3. XCl4
4. X2Cl

The outer electronic configuration of Gd (At. No. 64) is

1. 4f5 5d4 6s1
2. 4f7 5d1 6s2
3. 4f3 5d5 6s2
4. 4f4 5d5 6s1

According to law of photochemical equivalence the energy absorbed (in ergs/mole) is given as (h = 6.62 10-27 ergs, c = 3 1010 cm s-1, NA = 6.02 1023 mol-1)

1. 1.196 108
2. 2.859 105
3. 2.859 1016
4. 1.196 1016

Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of least negative to most negative electron gain enthalpy for C, Ca, Al, F and O?

1. Al < Ca < O < C < F
2. Al < O < C < Ca < F
3. C < F < O < Al < Ca
4. Ca < Al < C < O < F

The pair of species that has the same bond order in the following is

1. CO, NO+
2. NO-, CN-
3. O2, N2
4. O2, B2

The outer orbitals of C in ethene molecule can be considered to be hybridized to give three equivalent sp2 orbitals. The total number of sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds in ethene molecule is

1. 3 sigma (σ) and 2 pi (π) bonds
2. 4 sigma (σ) and 1 pi (π) bonds
3. 5 sigma (σ) and 1 pi (π) bonds
4. 1 sigma (σ) and 2 pi (π) bonds

In which of the following pair both the species have sp3 hybridization ?

1. SiF4, BeH2
2. NF3, H2O
3. NF3, BF3
4. H2S, BF3

In which of the following ionization processes the bond energy increases and the magnetic behaviour changes from paramagnetic to diamagnetic.

1. O2 O2+
2. C2 C2+
3. NO NO+
4. N2 N2+

When 5 litres of a gas mixture of methane and propane is perfectly combusted at 0 and 1 atmosphere, 16 litres of oxygen at the same temperature and pressure is consumed. The amount of heat released from this combustion in kJ ( Hcomb.(CH4) = 890 kJ mol-1, Hcomb.(C3H8) = 2220 kJ mol-1) is

1. 38
2. 317
3. 477
4. 32

Three thermochemical equations are given below (i) C(graphite) + O2(g) CO2(g); r H = x kJ mol-1 (ii) C(graphite) + 12O2(g) CO(g); r H = y kJ mol-1 (iii) CO(g) + 12O2(g) CO2(g); r H = z kJ mol-1 Based on the above equations, find out which of the relationship given below is correct.

1. z = x + y
2. x = y + z
3. y = 2z − x
4. x = y − z

Accumulation of lactic acid (HC3H5O3), a monobasic acid in tissues leads to pain and a feeling of fatigue. In a 0.10 M aqueous solution, lactic acid is 3.7% dissociated. The value of dissociation constant, Ka, for this acid will be

1. 1.4 10-5
2. 1.4 10-4
3. 3.7 10-4
4. 2.8 10-4

At 100 the Kw of water is 55 times its value at 25 . What will be the pH of neutral solution? (log 55 = 1.74)

1. 7.00
2. 7.87
3. 5.13
4. 6.13

The values of Ksp of CaCO3 and CaC2O4 are 4.7 10-9 and 1.3 10-9 respectively at 25 . If the mixture of these two is washed with water, what is the concentration of Ca2+ ions in water ?

1. 5.831 10-5 M
2. 6.856 10-5 M
3. 3.606 10-5 M
4. 7.746 10-5 M

The dissociation constant of weak acid is 1 10-4. In order to prepare a buffer solution with a pH = 5, the [Salt]/[Acid] ratio should be

1. 4 : 5
2. 10 : 1
3. 5 : 4
4. 1 : 10

Arrange the following in increasing order of stability 1. (CH3)2- C-CH2-CH3 2. (CH3)3- C 3. (CH3)2- CH 4. CH3- CH2 5. CH3

1. 5 < 4 < 3 < 1 < 2
2. 4 < 5 < 3 < 1 < 2
3. 1 < 5 < 4 < 3 < 2
4. 5 < 4 < 3 < 2 < 1

What is the hybridisation state of benzyl carbonium ion? [figure]

1. sp2
2. spd2
3. sp2d
4. sp3

Nitrogen detection in an organic compound is carried out by Lassaigne's test. The blue colour formed corresponds to which of the following formulae?

1. Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2
2. Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
3. Fe4[Fe(CN)6]2
4. Fe3[Fe(CN)6]3

Homolytic fission of the following alkanes forms free radicals CH3-CH3, CH3-CH2-CH3, (CH3)2CH-CH3, CH3-CH2-CH(CH3)2. Increasing order of stability of the radicals is

1. (CH3)2 C-CH2CH3 < CH3- CH-CH3 < CH3- CH2 < (CH3)3 C
2. CH3- CH2 < CH3- CH-CH3 < (CH3)2 C-CH2-CH3 < (CH3)3 C
3. CH3- CH2 < CH3- CH-CH3 < (CH3)3 C < (CH3)2 C-CH2CH3
4. (CH3)3 C < (CH3)2 C-CH2CH3 < CH3- CH-CH3 < CH3- CH2

Which of the following chemical system is non aromatic?

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

In the following reaction: HC CH [Hg2+]H2SO4 'P' Product 'P' will not give

1. Tollen's reagent test
2. Brady's reagent test
3. Victor Meyer test
4. Iodoform test

Given: [figure] I and II are

1. identical
2. a pair of conformers
3. a pair of geometrical isomers
4. a pair of optical isomers

Number of isomeric alcohols of molecular formula C6H14O which give positive iodoform test is

1. three
2. four
3. five
4. two

On hydrolysis of a "compound", two compounds are obtained. One of which on treatment with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid gives a product which does not respond to iodoform test. The second one reduces Tollens reagent and Fehling's solution. The "compound" is

1. CH3CH2CH2NC
2. CH3CH2CH2CN
3. CH3CH2CH2ON=O
4. CH3CH2CH2CON(CH3)2

Some reactions of amines are given. Which one is not correct?

1. [figure]
2. CH3CH2NH2 + HNO2 CH3CH2OH + N2
3. CH3NH2 + C6H5SO2Cl CH3NHSO2C6H5
4. (CH3)2NH + NaNO2 + HCl (CH3)2N-N=O

In DNA, the linkages between different nitrogenous bases are

1. phosphate linkage
2. H-bonding
3. glycosidic linkage
4. peptide linkage

Which condition is not satisfied by an ideal solution?

1. mixV = 0
2. mixS = 0
3. Obeyance to Raoult's Law
4. mixH = 0

Consider the half-cell reduction reaction Mn2+ + 2e- Mn, E = -1.18 V Mn2+ Mn3+ + e-, E = -1.51 V The E for the reaction 3Mn2+ Mn + 2Mn3+, and possibility of the forward reaction are respectively

1. -4.18 V and yes
2. +0.33 V and yes
3. +2.69 V and no
4. -2.69 V and no

How many gram of cobalt metal will be deposited when a solution of cobalt (II) chloride is electrolyzed with a current of 10 amperes for 109 minutes ( 1 Faraday = 96,500 C; Atomic mass of Co = 59 u)

1. 4.0
2. 20.0
3. 40.0
4. 0.66

For a reaction between A and B the order with respect to A is 2 and the order with respect to B is 3. The concentrations of both A and B are doubled, the rate will increase by a factor of

1. 12
2. 16
3. 32
4. 10

A reaction is 50\% complete in 2 hours and 75\% complete in 4 hours. The order of reaction is

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 0

Which statement is wrong?

1. Beryl is an example of cyclic silicate.
2. Mg2SiO4 is orthosilicate.
3. Basic structural unit in silicates is the SiO4 tetrahedron.
4. Feldspars are not aluminosilicates.

Identify the incorrect statement, regarding the molecule XeO4:

1. XeO4 molecule is square planar.
2. There are four p -d bonds.
3. There are four sp3-p, bonds.
4. XeO4 molecule is tetrahedral.

Sc (Z = 21) is a transition element but Zn (Z = 30) is not because

1. both Sc3+ and Zn2+ ions are colourless and form white compounds.
2. in case of Sc, 3d orbitals are partially filled but in Zn these are filled.
3. last electron is assumed to be added to 4s level in case of Zn.
4. both Sc and Zn do not exhibit variable oxidation states.

Crystal field splitting energy for high spin d4 octahedral complex is

1. -1.2 o
2. -0.6 o
3. -0.8 o
4. -1.6 o

In a particular isomer of [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+, the Cl-Co-Cl angle is 90 , this isomer is known as

1. optical isomer
2. cis-isomer
3. position isomer
4. linkage isomer.

The anion of acetylacetone (acac) forms Co (acac)3 chelate with Co3+. The rings of the chelate are

1. five membered
2. four membered
3. six membered
4. three membered.

The correct IUPAC name for [CrF2(en)2]Cl is

1. chloro difluorido ethylene diaminechromium (III) chloride
2. difluoridobis (ethylene diamine) chromium (III) chloride
3. difluorobis-(ethylene diamine) chromium (III) chloride
4. chloro difluoridobis (ethylene diamine) chromium (III)

Which among the following is a paramagnetic complex?

1. [Co(NH3)6]3+
2. [Pt(en)Cl2]
3. [CoBr4]2-
4. Mo(CO)6

Which is diamagnetic?

1. [Co(F)6]3-
2. [Ni(CN)4]2-
3. [NiCl4]2-
4. [Fe(CN)6]3-

What is the density of N2 gas at 227 C and 5.00 atm pressure? (R = 0.082 L atm K-1 mol-1)

1. 1.40 g/L
2. 2.81 g/L
3. 3.41 g/L
4. 0.29 g/L

In Castner-Kellner cell for production of sodium hydroxide

1. brine is electrolyzed using graphite electrodes
2. molten sodium chloride is electrolysed
3. sodium amalgam is formed at mercury cathode
4. brine is electrolyzed with Pt electrodes

The metal oxide which cannot be reduced to metal by carbon is

1. Al2O3
2. PbO
3. ZnO
4. Fe2O3

Dettol is the mixture of

1. chloroxylenol and bithional
2. chloroxylenol and terpineol
3. phenol and iodine
4. terpineol and bithionol

Which one of the following statements is not true?

1. Clean water would have a BOD value of 5 ppm.
2. Fluoride deficiency in drinking water is harmful. Soluble fluoride is often used to bring its concentration up to 1 ppm.
3. When the pH of rain water is higher than 6.5, it is called acid rain.
4. Dissolved Oxygen (DO) in cold water can reach a concentration up to 10 ppm.

The common characteristics between tomato and potato will be maximum at the level of their

1. family
2. order
3. division
4. genus.

Why is a capsule advantageous to a bacterium?

1. It protects the bacterium from desiccation.
2. It provides means of locomotion
3. It allows bacterium to "hide" from host's immune system.
4. It allows the bacterium to attach to the surface.

Which one of the following is true for fungi?

1. They lack a rigid cell wall.
2. They are heterotrophs.
3. They lack nuclear membrane.
4. They are phagotrophs.

Syngamy can occur outside the body of the organism in

1. mosses
2. algae
3. ferns
4. Fungi

What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo?

1. Presence of archegonia
2. Well developed vascular tissues
3. Independent gametophyte
4. Independent sporophyte

Which one of the following is wrongly matched?

1. Spirogyra - Motile gametes
2. Sargassum - Chlorophyll
3. Basidiomycetes - Puffballs
4. Nostoc - Water blooms

The plant body is thalloid in

1. Sphagnum
2. Salvinia
3. Marchantia
4. Funaria.

Among flowers of Calotropis, tulip, Sesbania, Asparagus, Colchicum, sweet pea, Petunia, Indigofera, mustard, soybean, tobacco and groundnut, how many plants have corolla with valvate aestivation?

1. Six
2. Seven
3. Eight
4. Five

Inflorescence is racemose in

1. brinjal
2. tulip
3. aloe
4. soybean.

In a cymose inflorescence the main axis

1. has unlimited growth
2. bears a solitary flower
3. has unlimited growth but lateral branches end in flowers
4. terminates in a flower.

How many plants among China rose, Ocimum, sunflower, mustard, Alstonia, guava, Calotropis and Nerium (oleander) have opposite phyllotaxy?

1. Three
2. Four
3. Five
4. Two

Which of the following statements about enzymes is wrong?

1. Enzymes are denaturated at high temperatures.
2. Enzymes are mostly proteins but some are lipids also.
3. Enzymes are highly specific.
4. Enzymes require optimum pH and temperature for maximum activity.

Uridine, present only in RNA is a

1. nucleoside
2. nucleotide
3. purine
4. pyrimidine.

The figure shows a hypothetical tetrapeptide portion of a protein with parts labelled A - D. Which one of the following options is correct? [figure]

1. D is an acidic amino acid-glutamic acid.
2. C is an aromatic amino acid-tryptophan.
3. A is the C-terminal amino acid and D is N-terminal amino acid.
4. A is a sulphur containing amino acid methionine.

During meiosis I, the chromosomes start pairing at

1. zygotene
2. pachytene
3. diplotene
4. leptotene.

During the metaphase stage of mitosis, spindle fibres attach to chromosomes at

1. kinetochore
2. both centromere and kinetochore
3. centromere, kinetochore and areas adjoining centromere
4. centromere.

The pineapple which under natural condition is difficult to blossom has been made to produce fruits throughout the year by application of

1. NAA, 2,4-D
2. Phenyl acetic acid
3. Cytokinin
4. IAA, IBA.

Animal vectors are required for pollination in

1. Vallisneria
2. mulberry
3. cucumber
4. maize.

Albuminous seeds store their reserve food mainly in

1. endosperm
2. cotyledons
3. hypocotyl
4. perisperm.

Megaspores are produced from the megaspore mother cells after

1. mitotic division
2. formation of thick wall
3. differentiation
4. meiotic division.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. Cleistogamous flowers are always autogamous.
2. Xenogamy occurs only by wind pollination.
3. Chasmogamous flowers do not open at all.
4. Geitonogamy involves the pollen and stigma of flowers of different plants.

Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Sporopollenin can be degraded by enzymes.
2. Sporopollenin is made up of inorganic materials.
3. Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures as well as strong acids and alkalis.
4. Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures but not strong acids.

In our society women are blamed for producing female children. Choose the correct answer for the sex-determination in humans.

1. Due to some defect like aspermia in man
2. Due to the genetic make up of the particular sperm which fertilizes the egg
3. Due to the genetic make up of the egg
4. Due to some defect in the women

Which one is the incorrect statement with regards to the importance of pedigree analysis?

1. It confirms that DNA is the carrier of genetic information
2. It helps to trace the inheritance of a specific trait
3. It confirms that the trait is linked to one of the autosome
4. It helps to understand whether the trait in question is dominant or recessive

Down's syndrome in humans is due to :

1. Three 'X' chromosomes
2. Monosomy
3. Three copies of chromosome 21
4. Two 'Y' chromosomes

[figure] The figure gives an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill the blanks A, B and C.

1. A - Erwin Chargaff B - translation C - replication
2. A - Maurice Wilkins B - transcription C - translation
3. A - Francis Crick B - translation C - transcription
4. A - James Watson B - replication C - extension

Satellite RNA are present in some :

1. Prions
2. Bacteriophages
3. Plant viruses
4. Viroids

Which of the following is not a property of the genetic code ?

1. Ambiguous
2. Universal
3. Degeneracy
4. Non-overlapping

In an inducible operon, the genes are :

1. usually expressed unless a signal turns them "off"
2. always expressed
3. never expressed
4. usually not expressed unless a signal turns them "on"

One of the most frequently used techniques in DNA fingerprinting is :-

1. SSCP
2. SCAR
3. VNTR
4. AFLP

Tissue culture technique can produce infinite number of new plants from a small parental tissue. The economic importance of the technique is in raising:

1. development of new species
2. genetically uniform population identical to the original parent
3. variants through picking up somaclonal variations
4. homozygous diploid plants

Which of the following statements is not true about somatic embryogenesis ?

1. Somatic embryos can develop from microspores
2. Somatic embryo is induced usually by an auxin such as 2,4-D
3. The pattern of development of a somatic embryo is comparable to that of a zygotic embryo
4. A somatic embryo develops from a somatic cell

Microbe used for biocontrol of pest butterfly caterpillars is :

1. Streptococcus sp.
2. Trichoderma sp.
3. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
4. Bacillus thuringiensis

The age pyramid with broad base indicates :

1. high percentage of young individuals
2. high percentage of old individuals
3. a stable population
4. low percentage of young individuals

Which one of the following is not a parasitic adaptation ?

1. Loss of digestive organs
2. Loss of unnecessary sense organs
3. Development of adhesive organs
4. Loss of reproductive capacity

Benthic organisms are affected most by :

1. Surface turbulence of water
2. Water-holding capacity of soil
3. Light reaching the forest floor
4. Sediment characteristics of aquatic ecosystems

Which two distinct microbial processes are responsible for the release of fixed nitrogen as dinitrogen gas (N2) to the atmosphere ?

1. Anaerobic ammonium oxidation, and denitrification
2. Aerobic nitrate oxidation, and nitrite reduction
3. Enteric fermentation in cattle, and nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium in root nodules of legumes
4. Decomposition of organic nitrogen, and conversion of dinitrogen to ammonium compounds

Which one of the following is a primary consumer in maize field ecosystem ?

1. Phytoplankton
2. Lion
3. Grasshopper
4. Wolf

When man eats fish which feeds on zooplankton which have eaten small plants, the producer in the chain is :

1. Zooplankton
2. Fish
3. Small plants
4. Man

The largest tiger reserve in India is :-

1. Nagarjunsagar - Srisailam
2. Nagarhole
3. Valmiki
4. Periyar

Which of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India?

1. Wheat
2. Rice
3. Mango
4. Groundnut

Which organization publishes the 'Red Data Book' ?

1. WWF
2. GEF
3. IUCN
4. UNEP

Meristematic tissue responsible for increase in girth of tree trunk is :

1. Phellogen
2. Intercalary meristem
3. Apical meristem
4. Lateral meristem

Bundle sheath cells :

1. lack both RuBisCo and PEP carboxylase
2. are rich in PEP carboxylase
3. are rich in RuBisCo
4. lack RuBisCo

Which of the following statements is not true for stomatal apparatus ?

1. Stomata are involved in gaseous exchange
2. Inner walls of guard cells are thick
3. Guard cells invariably possess chloroplasts and mitochondria
4. Guard cells are always surrounded by subsidiary cells

The term 'glycocalyx' is used for :

1. bacterial cell glyco-engineered to possess N-glycosylated proteins
2. a layer present between cell wall and membrane of bacteria
3. a layer surrounding the cell wall of bacteria
4. cell wall of bacteria

Which of the following types of plastids does not contain stored food material ?

1. Elaioplasts
2. Chromoplasts
3. Amyloplasts
4. Aleuroplasts

Which of the following best illustrates "FEEDBACK" in development ?

1. As tissue (X) develops, it secretes something that induces tissue (Y) to develop
2. As tissue (X) develops, it secretes something that slows down the growth of tissue (Y)
3. Tissue (X) secretes RNA which changes the development of tissue (Y)
4. As tissue (X) develops, it secretes enzymes that inhibit the development of tissue (Y)

Select the alternative giving correct identification and function of the organelle 'A' in the diagram [Figure]

1. Golgi body - provides packaging material
2. Mitochondria - produce cellular energy in the form of ATP
3. Endoplasmic reticulum - synthesis of lipids
4. Lysosomes - secrete hydrolytic enzymes

A stage of mitosis is shown in the diagram. Which stage is it and what are its characteristics? [Figure]

1. Anaphase - Centromeres split and chromatids separate and start moving away.
2. Late prophase - Chromosomes move to spindle equator.
3. Metaphase - Spindle fibers attached to kinetochores, centromeres split and chromatids separate.
4. Metaphase - Chromosomes moved to spindle equator, chromosomes made up of two sister chromatids.

Specialized cells for fixing atmospheric nitrogen in Nostoc are

1. heterocysts
2. hormogonia
3. nodules
4. akinetes

Which of the following elements is a constituent of biotin?

1. Magnesium
2. Calcium
3. Phosphorus
4. Sulphur

Which two distinct microbial processes are responsible for the release of fixed nitrogen as dinitrogen gas (N2) to the atmosphere?

1. Aerobic nitrate oxidation and nitrate reduction
2. Decomposition of organic nitrogen and conversion of dinitrogen to ammonium compounds
3. Enteric fermentation in cattle and nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium in root nodules of legumes
4. Anaerobic ammonium oxidation and denitrification

The viability of seeds is tested by :

1. 2,3,5-triphenyl tetrazolium chloride
2. Safranine
3. 2,6-dichlorophenol indophenol
4. DMSO

The second commitment period for Kyoto Protocol was decided at :

1. Doha
2. Cancun
3. Durban
4. Bali

Climate of the world is threatened by :

1. Decreasing amount of atmospheric carbon dioxide
2. Increasing concentration of atmospheric oxygen
3. Decreasing amount of atmospheric oxygen
4. Increasing amount of atmospheric carbon dioxide

Which one of the following is not correct as regards the harmful effects of particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometers or less?

1. It can directly enter into our circulatory system
2. It can be inhaled into the lungs
3. It can cause respiratory problems
4. It can cause inflammation and damage to the lungs

The characteristics of Class Reptilia are

1. body covered with moist skin which is devoid of scales, the ear is represented by a tympanum, alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common cloaca
2. fresh water animals with bony endoskeleton, air-bladder to regulate buoyancy
3. marine animals with cartilaginous endoskeleton, body covered with placoid scales
4. body covered with dry and cornified skin, scales over the body are epidermal, they do not have external ears.

Which one of the following groups of animals reproduces only by sexual means?

1. Cnidaria
2. Porifera
3. Protozoa
4. Ctenophora

Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic and the taxon?

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Sharks and dogfishes differ from skates and rays because

1. gill slits are ventrally placed
2. head and trunk are widened considerably
3. distinct demarcation between body and tail
4. their pectoral fins distinctly marked off from cylindrical bodies.

Which one of the following is one of the paths followed by air or O2 during respiration in the adult male Periplaneta americana as it enters the animal body?

1. Spiracle in metathorax, trachea, tracheoles, oxygen diffuses into cells
2. Mouth, bronchial tube, trachea, oxygen enters cells
3. Spiracles in prothorax, tracheoles, trachea, oxygen diffuses into cells.
4. Hypopharynx, mouth, pharynx, trachea, tissues

Select the option which shows correct matching of animal with its excretory organ and excretory product.

1. array|l|l|l| Animal & Excretory organ & Excretory product \ Labeo (Rohu) & Nephridial tubes & Ammonia \ array
2. array|l|l|l| Animal & Excretory organ & Excretory product \ Salamander & Kidneys & Urea \ array
3. array|l|l|l| Animal & Excretory organ & Excretory product \ Peacock & Kidneys & Urea \ array
4. array|l|l|l| Animal & Excretory organ & Excretory product \ Housefly & Renal tubules & Uric acid \ array

During muscle contraction in humans, the

1. sarcomere does not shorten
2. A band remains same
3. A, H and I bands shorten
4. actin filaments shorten.

Select the correct statement with respect to disorders of muscles in humans.

1. Failure of neuromuscular transmission in myasthenia gravis can prevent normal swallowing.
2. Accumulation of urea and creatine in the joints causes their inflammation.
3. An overdose of vitamin D causes osteoporosis.
4. Rapid contractions of skeletal muscles cause muscle dystrophy.

Select the option which correctly matches the endocrine gland with its hormone and its function.

1. array|l|l|l| Endocrine & Hormone & Function \ gland & & \ Placenta & Estrogen & Initiates secretion \ & & of the milk \ array
2. array|l|l|l| Endocrine & Hormone & Function \ gland & & \ Corpus & Estrogen & Essential for \ luteum & & maintenance of \ & & endometrium \ array
3. array|l|l|l| Endocrine & Hormone & Function \ gland & & \ Leydig's & Androgen & Initiates the \ cells & & production of \ & & sperms \ array
4. array|l|l|l| Endocrine & Hormone & Function \ gland & & \ Ovary & FSH & Stimulates follicular \ & & development and \ & & the secretion of \ & & estrogens \ array

Norepinephrine (i) is released by sympathetic fibres (ii) is released by parasympathetic fibers (iii) increases the heart rate (iv) decreases blood pressure. Which of the above statements are correct?

1. (i) and (iii)
2. (ii) and (iii)
3. (ii) and (iv)
4. (i) and (iv)

Which of the following represents the action of insulin?

1. Increases blood glucose level by stimulating glucagon production.
2. Decreases blood glucose levels by forming glycogen.
3. Increases blood glucose levels by promoting cellular uptake of glucose.
4. Increases blood glucose levels by hydrolysis of glycogen.

The foetal ejection reflex in humans triggers the release of

1. oxytocin from foetal pituitary
2. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) from placenta
3. oxytocin from maternal pituitary
4. human placental lactogen (hPL) from placenta

The stage transferred into the uterus after induced fertilization of ovum in the laboratory is

1. morula
2. embryo at 2 blastomeres stage
3. zygote
4. embryo at 4 blastomeres stage

One of the following is not a method of contraception. Which one?

1. Pills of a combination of oxytocin and vasopressin
2. Lippes loop
3. Condoms
4. Tubectomy

Genes of interest can be selected from a genomic library by using :

1. Restriction enzymes
2. Gene targets
3. Cloning vectors
4. DNA probes

Random unidirectional change in allele frequencies that occurs by chance in all populations and especially in small populations is known as :-

1. Genetic drift
2. Migration
3. Mutation
4. Natural selection

Genetic variation in a population arises due to :

1. Reproductive isolation and selection
2. Mutations only
3. Mutations as well as recombination
4. Recombination only

Dinosaurs dominated the World in which of the following geological era ?

1. Jurassic
2. Devonian
3. Coenozoic
4. Mesozoic

The finch species of Galapagos Islands are grouped according to their food sources. Which of the following is not a finch food ?

1. Insects
2. Carrion
3. Tree buds
4. Seeds

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD) ?

1. Haemophilia is one of the STD
2. The chances of a 5-year-old boy contracting an STD are very little
3. A person may contract syphilis by sharing milk with one already suffering from the disease
4. Genital herpes and sickle-cell anaemia are both STD

Identify the site where Wuchereria bancrofti is normally found on human body :

1. Blood vessels of the thigh region
2. Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs
3. Muscles of the legs
4. Skin between the fingers

Which one of the following is a hallucinogenic drug?

1. Morphine
2. Opium
3. Caffeine
4. Lysergic acid diethylamide

During the process of isolation of DNA, chilled ethanol is added to :

1. Break open the cell to release DNA
2. Remove proteins such as histones
3. Facilitate action of restriction enzymes
4. Precipitate DNA

RNA interference involves :-

1. Interference of RNA in synthesis of DNA
2. Synthesis of cDNA from RNA using reverse transcriptase
3. Synthesis of mRNA from DNA
4. Silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary RNA

Which one of the following vectors is used to replace the defective gene in gene therapy ?

1. Ti plasmid
2. Cosmid
3. Ri plasmid
4. Adenovirus

Select the correct option with respect to Cockroaches :-

1. Nervous system comprises of a dorsal nerve cord and ten pairs of ganglion
2. The fore wings are tegmina which are used in flight
3. Malpighian tubules convert nitrogenous wastes into urea
4. Males bear short anal styles not present in females

Identify the tissue shown in the diagram and match with its characteristics and its location :- [Figure]

1. Smooth muscles, show branching, found in the walls of the heart.
2. Striated muscles, tapering at both-ends, attached with the bones of the ribs
3. Skeletal muscle, shows striations and closely attached with the bones of the limbs
4. Cardiac muscles, unbranched muscles, found in the walls of the heart

The figure shows blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Select the option which gives correct identification of label and functions of the part. [Figure]

1. A - Artery-Thick walled and blood flows evenly
2. C - Vein-Thin walled and blood flows in jerks/spurts
3. D - Pulmonary vein-Takes oxygenated blood to heart, pO2 = 95 mmHg
4. B - Capillary-Thin without muscle layer and wall two cell layers thick

The figure shows a human blood cell. Identify it and give its characteristics. [Figure]

1. Blood cell Monocyte, Characteristics Life span of 3 days, produces antibodies
2. Blood cell B-lymphocyte, Characteristics Forms about 20% of blood cells involved in immune response
3. Blood cell Basophil, Characteristics Secretes serotonin, inflammatory response
4. Blood cell Neutrophil, Characteristics Most abundant blood cells, phagocytic

The figure shows an axon terminal and synapse. Select the option giving correct identification of labels A-D. [Figure]

1. C-Receptor, D-Synaptic vesicles
2. A-Axon terminal, B-Serotonin complex
3. A-Action potential, C-Neurotransmitter
4. B-Neurotransmitter, D-Receptor capsules

A sagittal section of human brain is shown here. Identify at least two labels from A-D. [Figure]

1. A-Cerebral hemispheres, B-Cerebellum
2. B-Corpus callosum, D-Medulla
3. C-Mid brain, D-Cerebellum
4. A-Cerebrum, C-Pons

The figure shows a section of human ovary. Select the option which gives the correct identification of either A or B with function/ characteristic. [Figure]

1. A- Tertiary follicle - Forms Graafian follicle
2. B- Corpus luteum - Secretes progesterone
3. A- Primary oocyte - It is in the prophase I of the meiotic division
4. B- Corpus luteum - Secretes estrogen

A healthy person eats the following diet – 5 g raw sugar, 4 g albumin, 10 g pure buffalo ghee adulterated with 2 g vegetable ghee (hydrogenated vegetable oil) and 5 g lignin. How many calories he is likely to get?

1. 126
2. 164
3. 112
4. 144

Which enzymes are likely to act on the baked potatoes eaten by a man, starting from the mouth and as it moves down the alimentary canal?

1. Pancreatic amylase Salivary amylase Lipases
2. Disaccharidase like maltase Lipases Nucleases
3. Salivary amylase Pancreatic amylase Disaccharidases
4. Salivary maltase Carboxy peptidase Trypsinogen