AIPMT 2015 (Cancelled)

If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) are chosen as the fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula of surface tension will be

1. [EV-2T-2]
2. [E-2V-1T-3]
3. [EV-2T-1]
4. [EV-1T-2]

A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional motion such that its velocity varies according to v(x) = x-2n, where and n are constants and x is the position of the particle. The acceleration of the particle as a function of x, is given by

1. -2 2x-2n+1
2. -2n 2e-4n+1
3. -2n 2x-2n-1
4. -2n 2x-4n-1

A ship A is moving Westwards with a speed of 10 km h-1 and a ship B 100 km South of A, is moving Northwards with a speed of 10 km h-1. The time after which the distance between them becomes shortest, is

1. 5 2 h
2. 10 2 h
3. 0 h
4. 5 h

A block A of mass m1 rests on a horizontal table. A light string connected to it passes over a frictionless pulley at the edge of table and from its other end another block B of mass m2 is suspended. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the table is k. When the block A is sliding on the table, the tension in the string is

1. m1m2(1+ k)g(m1+m2)
2. m1m2(1- k)g(m1+m2)
3. (m2+ km1)g(m1+m2)
4. (m2- km1)g(m1+m2)

Three blocks A, B and C, of masses 4 kg, 2 kg and 1 kg respectively, are in contact on a frictionless surface, as shown. If a force of 14 N is applied on the 4 kg block, then the contact force between A and B is [figure]

1. 8 N
2. 18 N
3. 2 N
4. 6 N

A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that delivers a constant power k watts. If the particle starts from rest the force on the particle at time t is

1. 2mk t-1/2
2. 12 mk t-1/2
3. mk2 t-1/2
4. mk t-1/2

A block of mass 10 kg, moving in x direction with a constant speed of 10 m s-1, is subjected to a retarding force F = 0.1x J/m during its travel from x = 20 m to 30 m. Its final KE will be

1. 275 J
2. 250 J
3. 475 J
4. 450 J

Two particles of masses m1, m2 move with initial velocities u1 and u2. On collision, one of the particles gets excited to higher level, after absorbing energy . If final velocities of particles be v1 and v2 then we must have :

1. 12m1u12 + 12m2u22 - = 12m1v12 + 12m2v22
2. 12m12u12 + 12m22u22 + = 12m12v12 + 12m22v22
3. m12u1 + m22u2 - = m12v1 + m22v2
4. 12m1u12 + 12m2u22 = 12m1v12 + 12m2v22 -

Two similar springs P and Q have spring constants KP and KQ, such that KP > KQ. They are stretched first by the same amount (case a), then by the same force (case b). The work done by the springs WP and WQ are related as, in case (a) and case (b) respectively

1. WP > WQ; WQ > WP
2. WP < WQ; WQ < WP
3. WP = WQ; WP > WQ
4. WP = WQ; WP = WQ

A rod of weight W is supported by two parallel knife edges A and B and is in equilibrium in a horizontal position. The knives are at a distance d from each other. The centre of mass of the rod is at distance x from A. The normal reaction on A is

1. W(d-x)x
2. W(d-x)d
3. Wxd
4. Wdx

A mass m moves in a circle on a smooth horizontal plane with velocity v0 at a radius R0. The mass is attached to a string which passes through a smooth hole in the plane as shown. The tension in the string is increased gradually and finally m moves in a circle of radius R02. [figure] The final value of the kinetic energy is

1. 2mv02
2. 12mv02
3. mv02
4. 14mv02

Three identical spherical shells, each of mass m and radius r are placed as shown in figure. Consider an axis XX' which is touching to two shells and passing through diameter of third shell. Moment of inertia of the system consisting of these three spherical shells about XX' axis is [figure]

1. 165mr2
2. 4mr2
3. 115mr2
4. 3mr2

Kepler's third law states that square of period of revolution (T) of a planet around the sun, is proportional to third power of average distance r between sun and planet i.e. T2 = Kr3 here K is constant. If the masses of sun and planet are M and m respectively then as per Newton's law of gravitation force of attraction between them is F = GMmr2, here G is gravitational constant. The relation between G and K is described as

1. K = G
2. K = 1G
3. GK = 4 2
4. GMK = 4 2

Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5M and radii R and 2R are released in free space with initial separation between their centres equal to 12R. If they attract each other due to gravitational force only, then the distance covered by the smaller body before collision is :

1. 7.5R
2. 1.5R
3. 2.5R
4. 4.5R

The two ends of a metal rod are maintained at temperatures 100 and 110 . The rate of heat flow in the rod is found to be 4.0 J/s. If the ends are maintained at temperatures 200 and 210 , the rate of heat flow will be

1. 8.0 J/s
2. 4.0 J/s
3. 44.0 J/s
4. 16.8 J/s

A wind with speed 40 m/s blows parallel to the roof of a house. The area of the roof is 250 m2. Assuming that the pressure inside the house is atmospheric pressure, the force exerted by the wind on the roof and the direction of the force will be ( air = 1.2 kg/m3)

1. 2.4 105 N, upwards
2. 2.4 105 N, downwards
3. 4.8 105 N, downwards
4. 4.8 105 N, upwards

On observing light from three different stars P, Q and R, it was found that intensity of violet colour is maximum in the spectrum of P, the intensity of green colour is maximum in the spectrum of R and the intensity of red colour is maximum in the spectrum of Q. If TP, TQ and TR are the respective absolute temperatures of P, Q and R, then it can be concluded from the above observations that

1. TP < TR < TQ
2. TP < TQ < TR
3. TP > TQ > TR
4. TP > TR > TQ

The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700 m. The compressibility of water is 45.4 10-11 Pa-1 and density of water is 103 kg/m3. What fractional compression of water will be obtained at the bottom of the ocean?

1. 1.2 10-2
2. 1.4 10-2
3. 0.8 10-2
4. 1.0 10-2

The ratio of the specific heats CpCv = in terms of degrees of freedom (n) is given by

1. (1 + 2n )
2. (1 + n2 )
3. (1 + 1n )
4. (1 + n3 )

A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of = 110 as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is

1. 90 J
2. 1 J
3. 100 J
4. 99 J

One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a transition from A to B along a path AB as shown in the figure. [figure] The change in internal energy of the gas during the transition is

1. 20 J
2. -12 kJ
3. 20 kJ
4. -20 kJ

Figure below shows two paths that may be taken by a gas to go from a state A to a state C. [figure] In process AB, 400 J of heat is added to the system and in process BC, 100 J of heat is added to the system. The heat absorbed by the system in the process AC will be

1. 460 J
2. 300 J
3. 380 J
4. 500 J

A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. Its velocities at distances x1 and x2 from the mean position are V1 and V2 respectively. Its time period is

1. 2 V12+V22x12+x22
2. 2 V12-V22x12-x22
3. 2 x12+x22V12+V22
4. 2 x22-x12V12-V22

When two displacements represented by y1 = a ( t) and y2 = b ( t) are superimposed the motion is

1. simple harmonic with amplitude a2+b2
2. simple harmonic with amplitude (a+b)2
3. not a simple harmonic
4. simple harmonic with amplitude ab

The electric field in a certain region is acting radially outward and is given by E = Ar. A charge contained in a sphere of radius 'a' centred at the origin of the field, will be given by

1. 4 0 Aa3
2. 0 Aa3
3. 4 0 Aa2
4. A 0 a2

A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a cell of emf V and then disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K, which can just fill the air gap of the capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the following is incorrect?

1. The change in energy stored is 12CV2 ( 1K-1 )
2. The charge on the capacitor is not conserved.
3. The potential difference between the plates decreases K times.
4. The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K times.

A, B and C are voltmeters of resistance R, 1.5R and 3R respectively as shown in the figure. When some potential difference is applied between X and Y, the voltmeter readings are VA, VB and VC respectively, Then [figure]

1. VA = VB VC
2. VA VB VC
3. VA = VB = VC
4. VA VB = VC

Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross section a constant potential difference is applied. The quantity which remains constant along the conductor is

1. drift velocity
2. electric field
3. current density
4. current

A potentiometer wire has length 4 m and resistance 8 . The resistance that must be connected in series with the wire and an accumulator of e.m.f. 2 V, so as to get a potential gradient 1 mV per cm on the wire is

1. 44
2. 48
3. 32
4. 40

An electron moving in a circular orbit of radius r makes n rotations per second. The magnetic field produced at the centre has magnitude

1. 0 n2 er
2. 0 n e2r
3. 0 n e2 r
4. Zero

A wire carrying current I has the shape shown in adjoining figure. [figure] Linear parts of the wire are very long and parallel to X-axis while semicircular portion of radius R is lying in Y-Z plane. Magnetic field at point O is

1. B = - 0 I4 R ( i + 2 k )
2. B = 0 I4 R ( i - 2 k )
3. B = 0 I4 R ( i + 2 k )
4. B = - 0 I4 R ( i - 2 k )

A conducting square frame of side 'a' and a long straight wire carrying current I are located in the same plane as shown in the figure. The frame moves to the right with a constant velocity 'V'. The emf induced in the frame will be proportional to [figure]

1. 1(2x+a)2
2. 1(2x-a)(2x+a)
3. 1x2
4. 1(2x-a)2

A resistance 'R' draws power 'P' when connected to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed in series with the resistance, such that the impedance of the circuit becomes 'Z', the power drawn will be

1. P ( RZ )
2. P
3. P ( RZ )2
4. P RZ

A radiation of energy 'E' falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to the surface is (C = Velocity of light)

1. 2EC2
2. EC2
3. EC
4. 2EC

For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength ' ', diffraction is produced by a single slit whose width 'a' is of the order of the wavelength of the light. If 'D' is the distance of the screen from the slit, the width of the central maxima will be

1. Da
2. 2Da
3. 2D a
4. D a

Two identical thin plano-convex glass lenses (refractive index 1.5) each having radius of curvature of 20 cm are placed with their convex surfaces in contact at the centre. The intervening space is filled with oil of refractive index 1.7. The focal length of the combination is

1. -50 cm
2. 50 cm
3. -20 cm
4. -25 cm

The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive index of the material of the prism is (A/2). The angle of minimum deviation is

1. 90 - A
2. 180 + 2A
3. 180 - 3A
4. 180 - 2A

In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is placed 1 m away. A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is used. What will be the width of each slit for obtaining ten maxima of double slit within the central maxima of single slit pattern?

1. 0.5 mm
2. 0.02 mm
3. 0.2 mm
4. 0.1 mm

Which of the following figures represent the variation of particle momentum and the associated de-Broglie wavelength?

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

A certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength, . The stopping potential for photo-electric current for this light is 3V0. If the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 2 , the stopping potential is V0. The threshold wavelength for this surface for photo-electric effect is

1. 4
2. 6
3. 6
4. 4

Consider 3rd orbit of He+ (Helium), using non-relativistic approach, the speed of electron in this orbit will be [given K = 9 109 constant, Z = 2 and h (Planck's Constant) = 6.6 10-34 J s]

1. 0.73 106 m/s
2. 3.0 108 m/s
3. 2.92 106 m/s
4. 1.46 106 m/s

Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates? [figure]

1. AND
2. NOR
3. OR
4. NAND

If in a p-n junction, a square input signal of 10 V is applied, as shown, [figure] then the output across RL will be

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

If radius of the 2713Al nucleus is taken to be RAl, then the radius of 12553Te nucleus is nearly

1. 35 RAl
2. ( 1353 )1/3 RAl
3. ( 5313 )1/3 RAl
4. 53 RAl

A mixture of gases contains H2 and O2 gases in the ratio of 1 : 4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of the two gases in the mixture ?

1. 16 : 1
2. 2 : 1
3. 1 : 4
4. 4 : 1

The number of d-electrons in Fe2+ (Z = 26) is not equal to the number of electrons in which one of the following ?

1. d-electrons in Fe (Z = 26)
2. p-electrons in Ne (Z = 10)
3. s-electrons in Mg (Z = 12)
4. p-electrons in Cl (Z = 17)

The angular momentum of electron in 'd' orbital is equal to

1. 2 3
2. 0
3. 6
4. 2

The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their radii increase ?

1. Ca2+ < K+ < Ar
2. K+ < Ar < Ca2+
3. Ar < K+ < Ca2+
4. Ca2+ < Ar < K+

Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural ?

1. SO32-, NO3-
2. ClO3-, SO32-
3. CO32-, SO32-
4. ClO3-, CO32-

The correct bond order in the following species is

1. O2+ < O2- < O22+
2. O2- < O2+ < O22+
3. O22+ < O2+ < O2-
4. O22+ < O2- < O2+

Which of the following options represents the correct bond order ?

1. O2- > O2 < O2+
2. O2- < O2 > O2+
3. O2- > O2 > O2+
4. O2- < O2 < O2+

Maximum bond angle at nitrogen is present in which of the following ?

1. NO2+
2. NO3-
3. NO2
4. NO2-

The Ksp of Ag2CrO4, AgCl, AgBr and AgI are respectively, 1.1 10-12, 1.8 10-10, 5.0 10-13, 8.3 10-17. Which one of the following salts will precipitate last if AgNO3 solution is added to the solution containing equal moles of NaCl, NaBr, NaI and Na2CrO4?

1. AgBr
2. Ag2CrO4
3. AgI
4. AgCl

Which of the following statements is correct for a reversible process in a state of equilibrium?

1. G = -2.30 RT K
2. G = 2.30 RT K
3. G = -2.30 RT K
4. G = 2.30 RT K

If the value of equilibrium constant for a particular reaction is 1.6 1012, then at equilibrium the system will contain

1. mostly products
2. similar amounts of reactants and products
3. all reactants
4. mostly reactants.

Treatment of cyclopentanone [figure] with methyl lithium gives which of the following species ?

1. Cyclopentanonyl radical
2. Cyclopentanonyl biradical
3. Cyclopentanonyl anion
4. Cyclopentanonyl cation

The total number of π-bond electrons in the following structure is [figure]

1. 12
2. 16
3. 4
4. 8

Which of the following species contains equal number of σ- and π-bonds ?

1. (CN)2
2. CH2(CN)2
3. HCO3-
4. XeO4

Given : [figure] Which of the given compounds can exhibit tautomerism?

1. II and III
2. I, II and III
3. I and II
4. I and III

Which of the following is the most correct electron displacement for a nucleophilic reaction to take place?

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

In Dumas method for estimation of nitrogen, 0.25 g of an organic compound gave 40 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 725 mm pressure. If the aqueous tension at 300 K is 25 mm, the percentage of nitrogen in the compound is

1. 16.75
2. 15.76
3. 17.36
4. 18.20

Consider the following compounds : [figure] Hyperconjugation occurs in

1. III only
2. I and III
3. I only
4. II only

The enolic form of ethyl acetoacetate as shown below has [figure]

1. 9 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
2. 9 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond
3. 18 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
4. 16 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond.

In which of the following compounds, the C–Cl bond ionisation shall give most stable carbonium ion?

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

A single compound of the structure, [figure] is obtainable from ozonolysis of which of the following cyclic compounds?

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Given : [figure] The enthalpy of hydrogenation of these compounds will be in the order as

1. II > III > I
2. II > I > III
3. I > II > III
4. III > II > I

The reaction of C6H5CH=CHCH3 with HBr produces

1. C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br
2. [figure]
3. C6H5 Br |CHCH2CH3
4. C6H5CH2 Br |CHCH3

The reaction, [figure] is called

1. Etard reaction
2. Gattermann-Koch reaction
3. Williamson synthesis
4. Williamson continuous etherification process

An organic compound 'X' having molecular formula C5H10O yields phenylhydrazone and gives negative response to the iodoform test and Tollens' test. It produces n-pentane on reduction. 'X' could be

1. 3-pentanone
2. n-amyl alcohol
3. pentanal
4. 2-pentanone

The electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in strongly acidic medium produces

1. azobenzene
2. aniline
3. p-aminophenol
4. azoxybenzene.

The boiling point of 0.2 mol kg-1 solution of X in water is greater than equimolal solution of Y in water. Which one of the following statements is true in this case?

1. Molecular mass of X is less than the molecular mass of Y.
2. Y is undergoing dissociation in water while X undergoes no change.
3. X is undergoing dissociation in water.
4. Molecular mass of X is greater than the molecular mass of Y.

Which one of the following electrolytes has the same value of van't Hoff factor (i) as that of Al2(SO4)3 (if all are 100% ionised)?

1. Al(NO3)3
2. K4[Fe(CN)6]
3. K2SO4
4. K3[Fe(CN)6]

Which of them is not equal to zero for an ideal solution?

1. Vmix
2. P = Pobserved - PRaoult
3. Hmix
4. Smix

A device that converts energy of combustion of fuels like hydrogen and methane, directly into electrical energy is known as

1. dynamo
2. Ni-Cd cell
3. fuel cell
4. electrolytic cell

The activation energy of a reaction can be determined from the slope of which of the following graphs?

1. k vs. 1T
2. T k vs. 1T
3. k vs. T
4. kT vs. T

When initial concentration of a reactant is doubled in a reaction, its half-life period is not affected. The order of the reaction is

1. second
2. more than zero but less than first
3. zero
4. first.

Nitrogen dioxide and sulphur dioxide have some properties in common. Which property is shown by one of these compounds, but not by the other?

1. Is soluble in water.
2. Is used as a food preservative.
3. Forms 'acid-rain'.
4. Is a reducing agent.

Magnetic moment 2.84 B.M. is given by (At. nos. Ni = 28, Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27)

1. Cr2+
2. Co2+
3. Ni2+
4. Ti3+

Which of the following processes does not involve oxidation of iron?

1. Formation of Fe(CO)5 from Fe.
2. Liberation of H2 from steam by iron at high temperature.
3. Rusting of iron sheets.
4. Decolourisation of blue CuSO4 solution by iron.

Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of the following pairs of elements have nearly same atomic radii? (Numbers in the parenthesis are atomic numbers)

1. Zr(40) and Hf(72)
2. Zr(40) and Ta(73)
3. Ti(22) and Zr(40)
4. Zr(40) and Nb(41)

Cobalt (III) chloride forms several octahedral complexes with ammonia. Which of the following will not give test for chloride ions with silver nitrate at 25 ?

1. CoCl3 5NH3
2. CoCl3 6NH3
3. CoCl3 3NH3
4. CoCl3 4NH3

Which of these statements about [Co(CN)6]3- is true?

1. [Co(CN)6]3- has four unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration.
2. [Co(CN)6]3- has no unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration.
3. [Co(CN)6]3- has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration.
4. [Co(CN)6]3- has four unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration.

The function of "Sodium pump" is a biological process operating in each and every cell of all animals. Which of the following biologically important ions is also a constituent of this pump?

1. K+
2. Fe2+
3. Ca2+
4. Mg2+

Solubility of the alkaline earth metal sulphates in water decreases in the sequence

1. Sr > Ca > Mg > Ba
2. Ba > Mg > Sr > Ca
3. Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba
4. Ca > Sr > Ba > Mg

Biodegradable polymer which can be produced from glycine and aminocaproic acid is

1. buna - N
2. nylon 6, 6
3. nylon 2-nylon 6
4. PHBV

A given metal crystallises out with a cubic structure having edge length of 361 pm. If there are four metal atoms in one unit cell, what is the radius of one atom?

1. 80 pm
2. 108 pm
3. 40 pm
4. 127 pm

Which property of colloidal solution is independent of charge on the colloidal particles?

1. Electro-osmosis
2. Tyndall effect
3. Coagulation
4. Electrophoresis

"Metals are usually not found as nitrates in their ores." Out of the following two (I and II) reasons which is/are true for the above observation? I. Metal nitrates are highly unstable. II. Metal nitrates are highly soluble in water.

1. I is false but II is true.
2. I is true but II is false.
3. I and II are true.
4. I and II are false

Bithional is generally added to the soaps as an additive to function as a/n

1. buffering agent
2. antiseptic
3. softener
4. dryer

True nucleus is absent in

1. Vaucheria
2. Volvox
3. Anabaena
4. Mucor.

Which one of the following matches is correct?

1. Mucor – Reproduction by conjugation – Ascomycetes
2. Agaricus – Parasitic fungus – Basidiomycetes
3. Phytophthora – Aseptate mycelium – Basidiomycetes
4. Alternaria – Sexual reproduction absent – Deuteromycetes

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

1. Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food.
2. Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae.
3. Algin and carrageenan are products of algae.
4. Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria.

In which of the following, gametophyte is not independent free living?

1. Pteris
2. Pinus
3. Funaria
4. Marchantia

Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements.

1. A, D and E
2. B, C and E
3. A, C and D
4. B, C and D

Male gametes are flagellated in

1. Ectocarpus
2. Spirogyra
3. Polysiphonia
4. Anabaena.

Perigynous flowers are found in

1. China rose
2. rose
3. guava
4. cucumber.

Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of

1. Aloe
2. tomato
3. tulip
4. Indigofera.

Leaves become modified into spines in

1. onion
2. silk cotton
3. Opuntia
4. pea

[figure] is the floral formula of

1. Petunia
2. Brassica
3. Allium
4. Sesbania.

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

1. The competitive inhibitor does not affect the rate of breakdown of the enzyme-substrate complex.
2. The presence of the competitive inhibitor decreases the Km of the enzyme for the substrate.
3. A competitive inhibitor reacts reversibly with the enzyme to form an enzyme-inhibitor complex.
4. In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor molecule is not chemically changed by the enzyme.

A somatic cell that has just completed the S phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of the same species, has

1. twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA
2. four times the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA
3. twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA
4. same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA.

Select the correct option.

1. (A) - (i); (B) - (ii); (C) - (v); (D) - (iv)
2. (A) - (ii); (B) - (iii); (C) - (iv); (D) - (v)
3. (A) - (ii); (B) - (i); (C) - (iii); (D) - (iv)
4. (A) - (ii); (B) - (iii); (C) - (v); (D) - (iv)

Cytochromes are found in

1. cristae of mitochondria
2. lysosomes
3. matrix of mitochondria
4. outer wall of mitochondria.

What causes a green plant exposed to the light, on only one side, to bend towards the source of light as it grows?

1. Light stimulates plant cells on the lighted side to grow faster.
2. Auxin accumulates on the shaded side, stimulating greater cell elongation there.
3. Green plants need light to perform photosynthesis.
4. Green plants seek light because they are phototropic.

Typical growth curve in plants is

1. stair-steps shaped
2. parabolic
3. sigmoid
4. linear.

Which of the following are the important floral rewards to the animal pollinators?

1. Floral fragrance and calcium crystals
2. Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates
3. Colour and large size of flower
4. Nectar and pollen grains

Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is genetically similar to autogamy?

1. Apogamy
2. Cleistogamy
3. Geitonogamy
4. Xenogamy

Which one of the following statements is not true?

1. The flowers pollinated by flies and bats secrete foul odour to attract them.
2. Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen collected from flowers.
3. Pollen grains are rich in nutrients and they are used in the form of tablets and syrups.
4. Pollen grains of some plants cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people.

Transmission tissue is characteristic feature of

1. dry stigma
2. wet stigma
3. hollow style
4. solid style.

Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E. coli that involves the lac I gene product is

1. negative and inducible because repressor protein prevents transcription.
2. positive and inducible because it can be induced by lactose
3. negative and repressible because repressor protein prevents transcription
4. feedback inhibition because excess of -galactosidase can switch off transcription

In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are

1. G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
2. G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
3. G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
4. G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%

The guts of cow and buffalo possess

1. Cyanobacteria
2. Fucus sp.
3. Methanogens
4. Chlorella sp.

The following graph depicts changes in two populations (A and B) of herbivores in a grassy field. A possible reason for these changes is that: [figure]

1. Population B competed more successfully for food than population A
2. Population A consumed the members of population B
3. Both plant populations in this habitat decreased
4. Population A produced more offspring than population B

The mass of living material at a trophic level at a particular time is called :

1. Net primary productivity
2. Standing state
3. Standing crop
4. Gross primary productivity

Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in a biotic community is known as :

1. Stratification
2. Pyramid
3. Divergence
4. Zonation

Secondary Succession takes place on/in :

1. Newly created pond
2. Newly cooled lava
3. Bare rock
4. Degraded forest

Most animals are tree dwellers in a:

1. temperate deciduous forest
2. tropical rain forest
3. coniferous forest
4. thorn woodland

In an ecosystem the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is termed as :

1. Secondary productivity
2. Net Productivity
3. Net primary productivity
4. Gross primary productivity

In which of the following both pairs have correct combination ?

1. In situ conservation : Cryopreservation Ex situ conservation : Wildlife Sanctuary
2. In situ conservation : Tissue culture Ex situ conservation : Sacred groves
3. In situ conservation : National Park Ex situ conservation : Botanical Garden
4. In situ conservation : Seed Bank Ex situ conservation : National Park

Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as:

1. In situ conservation by sacred groves
2. In situ conservation of biodiversity
3. In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity
4. Advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity

A major characteristic of the monocot root is the presence of :

1. Vasculature without cambium
2. Cambium sandwiched between phloem and xylem along the radius
3. Open vascular bundles
4. Scattered vascular bundles

Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because

1. There are no vessels with perforations
2. Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem
3. A bundle sheath surrounds each bundle
4. Cambium is absent

DNA is not present in :

1. Nucleus
2. Chloroplast
3. Mitochondria
4. Ribosomes

Nuclear envelope is a derivative of :

1. Membrane of Golgi complex
2. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
3. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
4. Microtubules

The structures that are formed by stacking of organized flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplasts are

1. Stroma lamellae
2. Cristae
3. Stroma
4. Grana

Select the correct matching in the following pairs :

1. Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids
2. Smooth ER – Oxidation of phospholipids
3. Rough ER – Synthesis of glycogen
4. Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids

The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to one end are :

1. Telocentric
2. Metacentric
3. Sub-metacentric
4. Acrocentric

Which one of the following is not an inclusion body found in prokaryotes?

1. Cyanophycean granule
2. Phosphate granule
3. Polysome
4. Glycogen granule

The hilum is a scar on the

1. seed, where funicle was attached
2. fruit, where style was present
3. fruit, where it was attached to pedicel
4. seed, where micropyle was present

The movement of a gene from one linkage group to another is called

1. inversion
2. translocation
3. duplication
4. crossing over

Alleles are

1. true breeding homozygotes
2. different phenotype
3. heterozygotes
4. different molecular forms of a gene

Multiple alleles are present

1. on different chromosomes
2. at the same locus of the chromosome
3. at different loci on the same chromosome.
4. on non-sister chromatids

A man with blood group ‘A’ marries a woman with blood group ‘B’. What are all the possible blood groups of their offsprings?

1. A and B only
2. A, B, AB and O
3. A, B and AB only
4. O only

How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea plants were studied by Mendel in his experiments?

1. Eight
2. Five
3. Seven
4. Six

An abnormal human baby with ‘XXX’ sex chromosomes was born due to

1. formation of abnormal sperms in the father
2. fusion of two ova and one sperm
3. formation of abnormal ova in the mother
4. fusion of two sperms and one ovum

In a ring girdled plant

1. the shoot and root die together
2. neither root nor shoot will die
3. the shoot dies first
4. the root dies first.

Transpiration and root pressure cause water to rise in plants by

1. pushing it upward
2. pushing and pulling it, respectively
3. pulling it upward
4. pulling and pushing it, respectively.

Which one gives the most valid and recent explanation for stomatal movement?

1. Starch hydrolysis
2. Guard cell photosynthesis
3. Transpiration
4. Potassium influx and efflux

Minerals known to be required in large amounts for plant growth include

1. potassium, phosphorus, selenium, boron
2. magnesium, sulphur, iron, zinc
3. phosphorus, potassium, sulphur, calcium
4. calcium, magnesium, manganese, copper.

In ginger, vegetative propagation occurs through

1. bulbils
2. runners
3. rhizome
4. offsets.

A technique of micropropagation is

1. somatic embryogenesis
2. embryo rescue
3. protoplast fusion
4. somatic hybridisation

Which of the following enhances or induces fusion of protoplasts ?

1. Sodium chloride and potassium chloride
2. IAA and kinetin
3. Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate
4. IAA and gibberellins

The UN Conference of Parties on climate change in the year 2011 was held in :

1. Peru
2. Qatar
3. Poland
4. South Africa

Which of the following is not one of the prime health risks associated with greater UV radiation through the atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone?

1. Increased liver cancer
2. Increased skin cancer
3. Damage to eyes
4. Reduced Immune System

High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) indicates that :

1. water is highly polluted
2. consumption of organic matter in the water is higher by the microbes
3. water is pure
4. water is less polluted

Rachel Carson's famous book "Silent Spring" is related to:

1. Population explosion
2. Pesticide pollution
3. Ecosystem management
4. Noise pollution

Which of the following endoparasites of humans does show viviparity?

1. Trichinella spiralis
2. Ascaris lumbricoides
3. Ancylostoma duodenale
4. Enterobius vermicularis

Which of the following represents the correct combination without any exception? (Characteristics – Class)

1. Sucking and circular mouth; jaws absent, integument without scales; paired appendages. – Cyclostomata
2. Body covered with feathers; skin moist and glandular, forelimbs form wings; lungs with air sacs. – Aves
3. Mammary gland; hair on body; pinnae; two pairs of limbs. – Mammalia
4. Mouth ventral; gills without operculum; skin with placoid scales; persistent notochord. – Chondrichthyes

Which of the following animals is not viviparous?

1. Platypus
2. Whale
3. Flying fox (Bat)
4. Elephant

Which of the following characteristics is mainly responsible for diversification of insects on land?

1. Exoskeleton
2. Eyes
3. Segmentation
4. Bilateral symmetry

When you hold your breath, which of the following gas changes in blood would first lead to the urge to breathe?

1. Falling CO2 concentration
2. Rising CO2 and falling O2 concentration
3. Falling O2 concentration
4. Rising CO2 concentration

Erythropoiesis starts in

1. spleen
2. red bone marrow
3. kidney
4. liver

Which one of the following is correct?

1. Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC
2. Blood = plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets
3. Plasma = Blood - Lymphocytes
4. Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen

Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum during

1. systole of the left ventricle
2. diastole of the right atrium
3. systole of the left atrium
4. diastole of the right ventricle.

Which of the following does not favour the formation of large quantities of dilute urine?

1. Renin
2. Atrial natriuretic factor
3. Alcohol
4. Caffeine

Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the nephron will result in

1. no change in quality and quantity of urine
2. no urine formation
3. more diluted urine
4. more concentrated urine.

Sliding filament theory can be best explained as

1. actin and myosin filaments do not shorten but rather slide past each other
2. when myofilaments slide past each other, myosin filaments shorten while actin filaments do not shorten
3. when myofilaments slide past each other actin filaments shorten while myosin filaments do not shorten
4. actin and myosin filaments shorten and slide past each other.

Glenoid cavity articulates

1. clavicle with scapula
2. humerus with scapula
3. clavicle with acromion
4. scapula with acromion.

Which of the following regions of the brain is incorrectly paired with its function?

1. Corpus callosum - communication between the left and right cerebral cortices
2. Cerebrum - calculation and contemplation
3. Medulla oblongata - homeostatic control
4. Cerebellum - language comprehension

A chemical signal that has both endocrine and neural roles is

1. epinephrine
2. cortisol
3. melatonin
4. calcitonin.

Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is normally diploid?

1. Spermatogonia
2. Secondary polar body
3. Primary polar body
4. Spermatid

Capacitation refers to changes in the

1. ovum after fertilisation
2. sperm after fertilisation
3. sperm before fertilisation
4. ovum before fertilisation

Hysterectomy is surgical removal of

1. vas deferens
2. mammary glands
3. uterus
4. prostate gland

Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?

1. Release of oxytocin
2. Release of prolactin
3. Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
4. Synthesis of prostaglandins

Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease?

1. Trichomoniasis
2. Syphilis
3. Encephalitis
4. Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male?

1. Ebola virus
2. Chikungunya virus
3. Hepatitis B virus
4. Human immunodeficiency virus

Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine

1. A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iv), D - (iii)
2. A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i)
3. A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iii), D - (iv)
4. A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (iv), D - (i)

The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon

1. food in intestine
2. mucosa and submucosa of colon only
3. blood only
4. erythrocytes, mucosa and submucosa of colon

HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying

1. thrombocytes
2. leucocytes
3. helper T-lymphocytes
4. B-lymphocytes

In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as pro-toxin is converted into active toxin due to :

1. action of gut micro-organisms
2. presence of conversion factors in insect gut
3. alkaline pH of the insect gut
4. acidic pH of the insect gut

Which body of the Government of India regulates GM research and safety of introducing GM organisms for public services ?

1. Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation
2. Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
3. Indian Council of Agricultural Research
4. Bio-safety committee

The crops engineered for glyphosate are resistant/tolerant to :

1. Bacteria
2. Herbicides
3. Fungi
4. Insects

The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body are joined by :

1. Cartilage
2. Cementing glue
3. Arthrodial membrane
4. Muscular tissue

Gastric juice of infants contains

1. pepsinogen, lipase, rennin
2. amylase, rennin, pepsinogen
3. maltase, pepsinogen, rennin
4. nuclease, pepsinogen

Which of the following statements is not correct?

1. Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of stomach and secrete HCl.
2. Acini are present in the pancreas and secrete carboxypeptidase.
3. Brunner's glands are present in the submucosa of stomach and secrete pepsinogen.
4. Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of intestine and secrete mucus.

A gymnast is able to balance his body upside down even in the total darkness because of

1. tectorial membrane
2. organ of corti
3. cochlea
4. vestibular apparatus.