AIPMT 2011 (Prelims)

The dimensions of ( 0 0)-1/2 are

1. [ L1/2T-1/2]
2. [ L-1T]
3. [ LT-1]
4. [ L1/2T1/2]

A boy standing at the top of a tower of 20 m height drops a stone. Assuming g = 10 m s-2, the velocity with which it hits the ground is

1. 10.0 m/s
2. 20.0 m/s
3. 40.0 m/s
4. 5.0 m/s

A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with constant speed and time period 0.2 s. The acceleration of the particle is

1. 15 m/s2
2. 25 m/s2
3. 36 m/s2
4. 5 m/s2

A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2, the range of the missile is

1. 40 m
2. 50 m
3. 60 m
4. 20 m

A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards east. After 10 seconds its velocity becomes 40 m/s towards north. The average acceleration of the body is

1. 1 m/s2
2. 7 m/s2
3. 7 m/s2
4. 5 m/s2

A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg and presses the button on control panel. The lift starts moving upwards with an acceleration 1.0 m/s2. If g = 10 m s-2, the tension in the supporting cable is

1. 8600 N
2. 9680 N
3. 11000 N
4. 1200 N

A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with the same velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is

1. MV
2. 1.5 MV
3. 2MV
4. zero

The potential energy of a system increases if work is done

1. upon the system by a nonconservative force
2. by the system against a conservative force.
3. by the system against a nonconservative force.
4. upon the system by a conservative force.

A body projected vertically from the earth reaches a height equal to earth's radius before returning to the earth. The power exerted by the gravitational force is greatest

1. at the highest position of the body
2. at the instant just before the body hits the earth.
3. it remains constant all through.
4. at the instant just after the body is projected.

A particle of mass m is released from rest and follows a parabolic path as shown. Assuming that the displacement of the mass from the origin is small, which graph correctly depicts the position of the particle as a function of time? [figure]

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with distance d as shown in figure. [figure] The work done on the particle during its displacement of 12 m is

1. 18 J
2. 21 J
3. 26 J
4. 13 J

The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the equation (t) = 2t3 - 6t2 The torque on the wheel becomes zero at

1. t = 1 s
2. t = 0.5 s
3. t = 0.25 s
4. t = 2 s

The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of mass M and length L about an axis passing through its midpoint and perpendicular to its length is I0. Its moment of inertia about an axis passing through one of its ends and perpendicular to its length is

1. I0 + ML2/2
2. I0 + ML2/4
3. I0 + 2ML2
4. I0 + ML2

A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the sun at a distance r1 and farthest away at a distance of r2. If v1 and v2 are the linear velocities at these points respectively, then the ratio v1v2 is

1. (r1/r2)2
2. r2/r1
3. (r2/r1)2
4. r1/r2

During an isothermal expansion, a confined ideal gas does 150 J of work against its surroundings. This implies that

1. 150 J of heat has been removed from the gas
2. 300 J of heat has been added to the gas
3. no heat is transferred because the process is isothermal
4. 150 J of heat has been added to the gas

When 1 kg of ice at 0 melts to water at 0 , the resulting change in its entropy, taking latent heat of ice to be 80 cal/g, is

1. 273 cal/K
2. 8 104 cal/K
3. 80 cal/K
4. 293 cal/K

Out of the following functions representing motion of a particle which represents SHM (1) y = sin t - cos t (2) y = sin3 t (3) y = 5 cos ( 3 4 - 3 t ) (4) y = 1 + t + 2 t2

1. Only (1)
2. Only (4) does not represent SHM
3. Only (1) and (3)
4. Only (1) and (2)

Two waves are represented by the equations y1 = a sin( t + kx + 0.57) m and y2 = a cos( t + kx) m, where x is in metre and t in second. The phase difference between them is

1. 1.0 radian
2. 1.25 radian
3. 1.57 radian
4. 0.57 radian

Sound waves travel at 350 m/s through warm air and at 3500 m/s through brass. The wavelength of a 700 Hz acoustic wave as it enters brass from warm air

1. decrease by a factor 10
2. increase by a factor 20
3. increase by a factor 10
4. decrease by a factor 20

A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field E in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is d and area of each plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is

1. 12 0E2
2. E2Ad 0
3. 12 0E2Ad
4. 0EAd

A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled, then the outward electric flux will

1. increase four times
2. be reduced to half
3. remain the same
4. be doubled

Four electric charges +q, +q, −q and −q are placed at the corners of a square of side 2L (see figure). The electric potential at point A, midway between the two charges +q and +q, is [figure]

1. 14 0 2qL (1 + 5 )
2. 14 0 2qL (1 + 1 5 )
3. 14 0 2qL (1 - 1 5 )
4. zero

A current of 2 A flows through a 2 Ω resistor when connected across a battery. The same battery supplies a current of 0.5 A when connected across a 9 Ω resistor. The internal resistance of the battery is

1. 0.5 Ω
2. 1/3 Ω
3. 1/4 Ω
4. 1 Ω

If power dissipated in the 9 Ω resistor in the circuit shown is 36 watt, the potential difference across the 2 Ω resistor is [figure]

1. 4 volt
2. 8 volt
3. 10 volt
4. 2 volt

A current carrying closed loop in the form of a right angle isosceles triangle ABC is placed in uniform magnetic field acting along AB. If the magnetic force on the arm BC is F, the force on the arm AC is [figure]

1. - 2 F
2. - F
3. F
4. 2 F

A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are acting along the same direction in a certain region. If an electron is projected in the region such that its velocity is pointed along the direction of fields, then the electron

1. will turn towards right of direction of motion
2. speed will decrease
3. speed will increase
4. will turn towards left of direction of motion

There are four light-weight-rod samples A, B, C, D separately suspended by threads. A bar magnet is slowly brought near each sample and the following observations are noted (i) A is feebly repelled (ii) B is feebly attracted (iii) C is strongly attracted (iv) D remains unaffected Which one of the following is true ?

1. B is of a paramagnetic material
2. C is of a diamagnetic material
3. D is of a ferromagnetic material
4. A is of a non-magnetic material

An ac voltage is applied to a resistance R and an inductor L in series. If R and the inductive reactance are both equal to 3 Ω, the phase difference between the applied voltage and the current in the circuit is

1. /6
2. /4
3. /2
4. zero

In the ac circuit an alternating voltage e = 200 2 sin 100t volts is connected to a capacitor of capacity 1 . The r.m.s. value of the current in the circuit is

1. 10 mA
2. 100 mA
3. 200 mA
4. 20 mA

The current i in a coil varies with time as shown in the figure. The variation of induced emf with time would be [figure]

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

The electric and the magnetic field, associated with an e.m. wave, propagating along the +z-axis, can be represented by

1. E = E0 i, B = B0 j
2. E = E0 k, B = B0 i
3. E = E0 j, B = B0 i
4. E = E0 j, B = B0 k

The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is

1. microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays
2. gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
3. microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet
4. infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays

Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection ?

1. Working of optical fibre
2. Difference between apparent and real depth of a pond
3. Mirage on hot summer days
4. Brilliance of diamond

A biconvex lens has a radius of curvature of magnitude 20 cm. Which one of the following options best describes the image formed of an object of height 2 cm placed 30 cm from the lens ?

1. Virtual, upright, height = 1 cm
2. Virtual, upright, height = 0.5 cm
3. Real, inverted, height = 4 cm
4. Real, inverted, height = 1 cm

Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum

1. power
2. wavelength
3. intensity
4. frequency

Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV respectively illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV successively. Ratio of maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be

1. 1 : 4
2. 1 : 2
3. 1 : 1
4. 1 : 5

Electrons used in an electron microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage is increased to 100 kV, then the de Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would

1. increase by 2 times
2. decrease by 2 times
3. decrease by 4 times
4. increase by 4 times

In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of most energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping potential is

1. 1.8 V
2. 1.3 V
3. 0.5 V
4. 2.3 V

The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series for hydrogen atom is equal to that of the second line of Balmer series for a hydrogen-like ion. The atomic number Z of hydrogen-like ion is

1. 3
2. 4
3. 1
4. 2

The power obtained in a reactor using 235U disintegration is 1000 kW. The mass decay of 235U per hour is

1. 10 microgram
2. 20 microgram
3. 40 microgram
4. 1 microgram

Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because

1. nuclei break up at high temperature
2. atoms get ionised at high temperature
3. kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the Coulomb repulsion between nuclei
4. molecules break up at high temperature

In forward biasing of the p-n junction

1. the positive terminal of the battery is connected to p-side and the depletion region becomes thick.
2. the positive terminal of the battery is connected to n-side and the depletion region becomes thin.
3. the positive terminal of the battery is connected to n-side and the depletion region becomes thick.
4. the positive terminal of the battery is connected to p-side and the depletion region becomes thin.

Symbolic representations of four logic gates are shown as [figure] Pick out which ones are for AND, NAND and NOT gates, respectively

1. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
2. (iii), (ii) and (i)
3. (iii), (ii) and (iv)
4. (iii), (iv) and (ii)

If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal

1. it becomes a p-type semiconductor
2. the antimony becomes an acceptor atom
3. there will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor
4. its resistance is increased

In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity of electrons emitted from the electron gun can be increased by

1. increasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
2. increasing the filament current
3. decreasing the filament current
4. decreasing the potential difference between the anode and filament

The half life of a radioactive isotope X is 50 years. It decays to another element Y which is stable. The two elements X and Y were found to be in the ratio of 1 : 15 in a sample of a given rock. The age of the rock was estimated to be

1. 150 years
2. 200 years
3. 250 years
4. 100 years

A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of frequency and the nucleus recoils. The recoil energy will be

1. Mc2 - h
2. h2 2/2Mc2
3. zero
4. h

A nucleus mnX emits one particle and two particles. The resulting nucleus is

1. m-6n-4Z
2. m-6nZ
3. m-4nX
4. m-4n-2Y

A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration at VC = 2 V such that a change in the base current from 100 A to 300 A produces a change in the collector current from 10 mA to 20 mA. The current gain is

1. 50
2. 75
3. 100
4. 25

The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom is

1. 8
2. 16
3. 32
4. 4

The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between their wavelengths i.e., 1 and 2 will be

1. 1 = 2
2. 1 = 2 2
3. 1 = 4 2
4. 1 = 12 2

If n = 6, the correct sequence for filling of electrons will be

1. ns (n-2)f (n-1)d np
2. ns (n-1)d (n-2)f np
3. ns (n-2)f np (n-1)d
4. ns np (n-1)d (n-2)f

Which of the following has the minimum bond length ?

1. O2+
2. O2-
3. O22-
4. O2

Which of the two ions from the list given below that have the geometry that is explained by the same hybridization of orbitals, NO2-, NO3-, NH2-, NH4+, SCN-?

1. NO2- and NO3-
2. NH4+ and NO3-
3. SCN- and NH2-
4. NO2- and NH2-

The correct order of increasing bond length of C-H, C-O, C-C and C=C is

1. C-H < C=C < C-O < C-C
2. C-C < C=C < C-O < C-H
3. C-O < C-H < C-C < C=C
4. C-H < C-O < C-C < C=C

The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic behavior are noted below. Which of the following presents the correct description?

1. O2-, O22- - Both diamagnetic
2. O+, O22- - Both paramagnetic
3. O2+, O2 - Both paramagnetic
4. O, O22- - Both paramagnetic

If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ mol-1 at 27 , the entropy change for the process would be

1. 10 J mol-1 K-1
2. 1.0 J mol-1 K-1
3. 0.1 J mol-1 K-1
4. 100 J mol-1 K-1

Enthalpy change for the reaction, 4H(g) 2H2(g) is -869.6 kJ The dissociation energy of H-H bond is

1. -434.8 kJ
2. -869.6 kJ
3. +434.8 kJ
4. +217.4 kJ

Which of the following is correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition ?

1. q = 0, T 0, w = 0
2. q 0, T = 0, w = 0
3. q = 0, T = 0, w = 0
4. q = 0, T < 0, w 0

The value of H for the reaction X2(g) + 4Y2(g) 2XY4(g) is less than zero. Formation of XY4(g) will be favoured at

1. high temperature and high pressure
2. low pressure and low temperature
3. high temperature and low pressure
4. high pressure and low temperature

A buffer solution is prepared in which the concentration of NH3 is 0.30 M and the concentration of NH4+ is 0.20 M. If the equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3 equals 1.8 10-5, what is the pH of this solution? ( 2.7 = 0.43)

1. 9.08
2. 9.43
3. 11.72
4. 8.73

Which of the following is least likely to behave as Lewis base?

1. H2O
2. NH3
3. BF3
4. OH-

For the reaction, N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g), the equilibrium constant is K1. The equilibrium constant is K2 for the reaction, 2NO(g) + O2(g) 2NO2(g) What is K for the reaction, NO2(g) 12N2(g) + O2(g)

1. 12K1K2
2. 14K1K2
3. [ 1K1K2 ]1/2
4. 1K1K2

Considering the state of hybridization of carbon atoms, find out the molecule among the following which is linear ?

1. CH3-CH=CH-CH3
2. CH3-C C-CH3
3. CH2=CH-CH2-C CH
4. CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3

Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic reagent?

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

The correct IUPAC name for the compound is [figure]

1. 4-ethyl-3-propylhex-1-ene
2. 3-ethyl-4-ethenylheptane
3. 3-ethyl-4-propylhex-5-ene
4. 3-(1-ethylpropyl)hex-1-ene

Which one is a nucleophilic substitution reaction among the following ?

1. CH3-CH=CH2 + H2O H+ CH3- OH |CH-CH3
2. RCHO + R'MgX R- OH |CH-R'
3. CH3-CH2- CH3 |CH-CH2Br + NH3 CH3-CH2- CH3 |CH-CH2NH2
4. CH3CHO + HCN CH3CH(OH)CN

The Lassaigne's extract is boiled with conc. HNO3 while testing for halogens. By doing so it

1. decomposes Na2S and NaCN, formed
2. helps in the precipitation of AgCl
3. increases the solubility product of AgCl
4. increases the concentration of NO3- ions

In the following reactions, (i) CH3- CH3 |CH- OH |CH-CH3 H+/heat (Major product)A + (Minor product)B (ii) A [in absence of peroxide]HBr, dark (Major product)C + (Minor product)D the major products (A) and (C) are respectively

1. CH2= CH3 |C-CH2-CH3 and Br |CH2- CH3 |CH-CH2-CH3
2. CH3- CH3 |C=CH-CH3 and CH3- Br | CH3 |C-CH2-CH3
3. CH2= CH3 |C-CH2-CH3 and CH3- Br | CH3 |C-CH2-CH3
4. CH3- CH3 |C=CH-CH3 and CH3- CH3 |CH- Br |CH-CH3

Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the following?

1. Glycol with KOH
2. Zn-Hg with HCl
3. LiAlH4
4. H2 and Pt as catalyst

In a set of reactions m-bromobenzoic acid gave a product D. Identify the product D. [figure]

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

What is the product obtained in the following reaction? [figure]

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Which one of the following statements is not true regarding (+) lactose?

1. On hydrolysis (+) lactose gives equal amount of D(+) glucose and D(+) galactose.
2. (+) Lactose is a -glucoside formed by the union of a molecule of D(+) glucose and a molecule of D(+) galactose.
3. (+) Lactose is a reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation.
4. (+) Lactose, C12H22O11 contains 8 –OH groups

The freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86 C m-1. If 5.00 g Na2SO4 is dissolved in 45.0 g H2O, the freezing point is changed by -3.82 C. Calculate the van't Hoff factor for Na2SO4.

1. 2.05
2. 2.63
3. 3.11
4. 0.381

The van't Hoff factor i for a compound which undergoes dissociation in one solvent and association in other solvent is respectively

1. less than one and greater than one
2. less than one and less than one
3. greater than one and less than one
4. greater than one and greater than one

Standard electrode potential of three metals X, Y and Z are -1.2 V, +0.5 V and -3.0 V respectively. The reducing power of these metals will be

1. Y > Z > X
2. Y > X > Z
3. Z > X > Y
4. X > Y > Z

The electrode potentials for Cu2+(aq) + e- Cu+(aq) and Cu+(aq) + e- Cu(s) are +0.15 V and +0.50 V respectively. The value of E Cu2+/Cu will be

1. 0.500 V
2. 0.325 V
3. 0.650 V
4. 0.150 V

Standard electrode potential for Sn4+/Sn2+ couple is +0.15 V and that for the Cr3+/Cr couple is -0.74 V. These two couples in their standard state are connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be

1. +1.19 V
2. +0.89 V
3. +0.18 V
4. +1.83 V

Which one of the following statements for the order of a reaction is incorrect?

1. Order can be determined only experimentally.
2. Order is not influenced by stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants.
3. Order of a reaction is sum of power to the concentration terms of reactants to express the rate of reaction.
4. Order of reaction is always whole number.

Name the type of the structure of silicate in which one oxygen atom of [SiO4]4- is shared.

1. Linear chain silicate
2. Sheet silicate
3. Pyrosilicate
4. Three dimensional

For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the stability of +2 oxidation state will be there in which of the following order? (At. nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)

1. Mn > Fe > Cr > Co
2. Fe > Mn > Co > Cr
3. Co > Mn > Fe > Cr
4. Cr > Mn > Co > Fe

Acidified K2Cr2O7 solution turns green when Na2SO3 is added to it. This is due to the formation of

1. Cr2(SO4)3
2. CrO42-
3. Cr2(SO3)3
4. CrSO4

Of the following complex ions, which is diamagnetic in nature?

1. [NiCl4]2-
2. [Ni(CN)4]2-
3. [CuCl4]2-
4. [CoF6]3-

The complexes [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6] are the examples of which type of isomerism?

1. Linkage isomerism
2. Ionization isomerism
3. Coordination isomerism
4. Geometrical isomerism

The complex, [Pt(Py)(NH3)BrCl] will have how many geometrical isomers?

1. 3
2. 4
3. 0
4. 2

The d-electron configurations of Cr2+, Mn2+, Fe2+ and Co2+ are d4, d5, d6 and d7 respectively. Which one of the following will exhibit minimum paramagnetic behaviour? (At. Nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)

1. [Mn(H2O)6]2+
2. [Fe(H2O)6]2+
3. [Co(H2O)6]2+
4. [Cr(H2O)6]2+

Which of the following carbonyls will have the strongest C–O bond?

1. Mn(CO)6+
2. Cr(CO)6
3. V(CO)6-
4. Fe(CO)5

Which of the following complex compounds will exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour?

1. [Ti(NH3)6]3+
2. [Cr(NH3)6]3+
3. [Co(NH3)6]3+
4. [Zn(NH3)6]2+

By what factor does the average velocity of a gaseous molecule increase when the temperature (in Kelvin) is doubled?

1. 2.0
2. 2.8
3. 4.0
4. 1.4

Two gases A and B having the same volume diffuse through a porous partition in 20 and 10 seconds respectively. The molecular mass of A is 49 u. Molecular mass of B will be

1. 50.00 u
2. 12.25 u
3. 6.50 u
4. 25.00 u

A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal moles of CO and N2. If the total pressure of the mixture was found to be 1 atmosphere, the partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2) in the mixture is

1. 0.5 atm
2. 0.8 atm
3. 0.9 atm
4. 1 atm

In Dumas method of estimation of nitrogen, 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound would be (aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm).

1. 15.45
2. 16.45
3. 17.45
4. 14.45

Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point?

1. CaCl2
2. CaBr2
3. CaI2
4. CaF2

Which one of the following is present as an active ingredient in bleaching powder for bleaching action?

1. CaOCl2
2. Ca(OCl)2
3. CaO2Cl
4. CaCl2

Of the following which one is classified as polyester polymer?

1. Terylene
2. Bakelite
3. Melamine
4. Nylon-6,6

If x is amount of adsorbate and m is amount of adsorbent, which of the following relations is not related to adsorption process?

1. x/m = f(p) at constant T
2. x/m = f(T) at constant p
3. p = f(T) at constant (x/m)
4. xm = p T

Which of the following elements is present as the impurity to the maximum extent in pig iron?

1. Manganese
2. Carbon
3. Silicon
4. Phosphorus

Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van Arkel method?

1. Ga and In
2. Zr and Ti
3. Ag and Au
4. Ni and Fe

Which one of the following is employed as antihistamine?

1. Chloramphenicol
2. Diphenhydramine
3. Norethindrone
4. Omeprazole

Which one of the following statements is not true?

1. pH of drinking water should be between 5.5–9.5.
2. Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish.
3. Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm.
4. Oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon are the most widespread air pollutants.

Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular taxonomic category?

1. Tiger – tigris, species
2. Cuttlefish – Mollusca, class
3. Humans – Primata, family
4. Housefly – Musca, order

Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell?

1. 5S rRNA
2. snRNA
3. hnRNA
4. 23S rRNA

In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is

1. plasma membrane
2. nucleus
3. ribosomes
4. cell wall

Which one of the following organisms is not a eukaryote?

1. Paramecium caudatum
2. Escherichia coli
3. Euglena viridis
4. Amoeba proteus

Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?

1. Root pressure – guttation
2. Puccinia – smut
3. Root – exarch protoxylem
4. Cassia – imbricate aestivation

The gametophyte is not an independent, free-living generation in

1. Polytrichum
2. Adiantum
3. Marchantia
4. Pinus

Compared with the gametophytes of the bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular plants tend to be

1. smaller but to have larger sex organs
2. larger but to have smaller sex organs
3. larger and to have larger sex organs
4. smaller and to have smaller sex organs

Archegoniophore is present in

1. Marchantia
2. Chara
3. Adiantum
4. Funaria

A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing symbiont is found in

1. Alnus
2. Cycas
3. Cicer
4. Pisum

Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. In tomato, fruit is a capsule.
2. Seeds of orchids have oil-rich endosperm.
3. Placentation in primrose is basal.
4. Flower of tulip is a modified shoot.

Flowers are zygomorphic in

1. mustard
2. gulmohur
3. tomato
4. Datura

The ovary is half inferior in flowers of

1. peach
2. cucumber
3. cotton
4. guava

A drupe develops in

1. mango
2. wheat
3. pea
4. tomato

The correct floral formula of chilli is

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

The curve given below shows enzymatic activity in relation to three conditions (pH, temperature and substrate concentration). What do the two axes (x and y) represent? [figure]

1. array|l|l| x-axis & y-axis \ enzymatic activity & pH \ array
2. array|l|l| x-axis & y-axis \ temperature & enzyme activity \ array
3. array|l|l| x-axis & y-axis \ substrate concentration & enzymatic activity \ array
4. array|l|l| x-axis & y-axis \ enzymatic activity & temperature \ array

Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is correctly identified along with its related function? [figure]

1. B : Adenine – A nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids
2. A : Triglyceride – Major source of energy
3. B : Uracil – A component of DNA
4. A : Lecithin – A component of cell membrane

Select the correct option with respect to mitosis.

1. Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase
2. Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase
3. Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase
4. Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase

CAM helps the plants in

1. conserving water
2. secondary growth
3. disease resistance
4. reproduction.

Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of

1. suspensor
2. egg
3. synergid
4. zygote.

Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of

1. Citrus
2. Gossypium
3. Triticum
4. Brassica.

Which one of the following pollinations is autogamous?

1. Geitonogamy
2. Xenogamy
3. Chasmogamy
4. Cleistogamy

The "eyes" of the potato tuber are

1. root buds
2. flower buds
3. shoot buds
4. axillary buds.

Wind pollination is common in

1. legumes
2. lilies
3. grasses
4. orchids.

When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the performance of F1 hybrid is often superior to both parents. This phenomenon is called :

1. Splicing
2. Transformation
3. Heterosis
4. Metamorphosis

Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex ?

1. XO condition in humans as found in Turner Syndrome, determines female sex
2. XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper
3. Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in Birds
4. Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila

What are those structures that appear as 'beads-on-string' in the chromosomes when viewed under electron microscope ?

1. Nucleosomes
2. Genes
3. Nucleotides
4. Base pairs

The most common substrate used in distilleries for the production of ethanol is :

1. Ground gram
2. Molasses
3. Soyabean
4. Corn meal

Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer ?

1. Agrobacterium
2. Nostoc
3. Rhizobium
4. Mycorrhiza

Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a :

1. Mechanical process
2. Chemical process
3. Biological process
4. Physical process

Which of the following is mainly produced by the activity of anaerobic bacteria on sewage ?

1. Propane
2. Mustard gas
3. Marsh gas
4. Laughing gas

An organism used as a Biofertilizer for raising soyabean crop is :

1. Azotobacter
2. Azospirillum
3. Nostoc
4. Rhizobium

Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular species of :

1. Clostridium
2. Trichoderma
3. Aspergillus
4. Saccharomyces

Continuous addition of sugars in 'fed batch' fermentation is done to :

1. obtain antibiotics
2. produce methane
3. purify enzymes
4. degrade sewage

Organisms called Methanogens are most abundant in a :

1. Polluted stream
2. Hot spring
3. Cattle yard
4. Sulphur rock

What type of human population is represented by the following age pyramid? [figure]

1. Declining population
2. Vanishing population
3. Expanding population
4. Stable population

Large woody vines are more commonly found in

1. Mangroves
2. Tropical rainforests
3. Alpine forests
4. Temperate forests

Consider the following four conditions (a – d) and select the correct pair of them as adaptation to environment in desert lizards. The conditions : (a) burrowing in soil to escape high temperature (b) losing heat rapidly from the body during high temperature (c) bask in sun when temperature is low (d) insulating body due to thick fatty dermis

1. (c), (d)
2. (b), (d)
3. (a), (c)
4. (a), (b)

Which one of the following is categorised as a parasite in true sense?

1. The female Anopheles bites and sucks blood from humans
2. Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair
3. The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow's nest
4. Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother

Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called :

1. Humus
2. Detritus
3. Standing state
4. Standing crop

Of the total incident solar radiation the proportion of PAR is

1. About 60%
2. More than 80%
3. Less than 50%
4. About 70%

Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession?

1. It follows primary succession
2. It occurs on deforested site
3. It is similar to primary succession except that it has a relatively fast pace.
4. It begins on a bare rock.

Which one of the following statements for pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the remaining three are correct?

1. It shows energy content of different trophic level organisms
2. It is upright in shape
3. It is inverted in shape
4. Its base is broad

Which of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India?

1. Wheat
2. Mango
3. Rice
4. Groundnut

Which one of the following has the highest number of species in nature?

1. Fungi
2. Angiosperms
3. Birds
4. Insects

The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called :

1. Periderm
2. Phellem
3. Phellogen
4. Phelloderm

Ground tissue includes :

1. All tissues external to endodermis
2. Epidermis and cortex
3. All tissues internal to endodermis
4. All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles

Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in :

1. Chromoplast
2. Ribosomes
3. Chloroplast
4. Mitochondria

Important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is :

1. Plastid
2. Lysosome
3. Golgi apparatus
4. Vacuole

Mutations can be induced with :

1. Gamma radiation
2. Infra Red radiations
3. IAA
4. Ethylene

What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42 chromosomes in its root tip cells?

1. 42
2. 63
3. 84
4. 21

In land plants, the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having

1. cytoskeleton
2. mitochondria
3. endoplasmic reticulum
4. chloroplasts

Which one of the following elements in plants is not remobilised?

1. Phosphorus
2. Calcium
3. Potassium
4. Sulphur

Nitrifying bacteria

1. oxidize ammonia to nitrates
2. convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds
3. convert proteins into ammonia
4. reduce nitrates to free nitrogen

The function of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is

1. inhibition of nitrogenase activity
2. oxygen removal
3. nodule differentiation
4. expression of nif gene

Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants?

1. Glomus
2. Rhizobium
3. Frankia
4. Anabaena

A collection of plants and seeds having diverse alleles of all the genes of a crop is called :

1. Gene library
2. Genome
3. Germplasm
4. Herbarium

"Jaya" and "Ratna" developed for green revolution in India are the varieties of :

1. Bajra
2. Wheat
3. Maize
4. Rice

'Himgiri' developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of :

1. Chilli
2. Sugarcane
3. Wheat
4. Maize

Eutrophication is often seen in :

1. Ocean
2. Mountains
3. Deserts
4. Fresh water lakes

Which one of the following pairs of gases is the major cause of "greenhouse effect"?

1. CFCs and SO2
2. CO2 and CO
3. CO2 and N2O
4. CO2 and O3

Which one of the following statements is wrong in case of Bhopal tragedy?

1. Thousands of human beings died
2. It took place in the night of December 2/3, 1984
3. Radioactive fallout engulfed Bhopal
4. Methyl isocyanate gas leakage took place

Which one of the following is the correct expanded form of the given acronym?

1. IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change
2. EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency
3. UNEP = United Nations Environmental policy
4. IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources

What will you look for to identify the sex of the following?

1. Female Ascaris – sharply curved posterior end
2. Male frog – a copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limb
3. Female cockroach – anal cerci
4. Male shark – claspers borne on pelvic fins

Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its characteristic feature without any exception?

1. Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with an incompletely divided ventricle
2. Chordata : possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw
3. Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
4. Mammalia : give birth to young ones

In which one of the following the genus name, its two characters and its class/phylum are correctly matched?

1. array|l|l|l| Genus name & Two characters & Class/Phylum \ Ascaris & (i) Body segmented & Annelida \ & (ii) Males and females distinct & \ array
2. array|l|l|l| Genus name & Two characters & Class/Phylum \ Salamandra & (i) A tympanum represents ear & Amphibia \ & (ii) Fertilization is external & \ array
3. array|l|l|l| Genus name & Two characters & Class/Phylum \ Pteropus & (i) Skin possesses hair & Mammalia \ & (ii) Oviparous & \ array
4. array|l|l|l| Genus name & Two characters & Class/Phylum \ Aurelia & (i) Cnidoblasts & Coelenterata \ & (ii) Organ level of organization & \ array

A large proportion of oxygen remains unused in the human blood even after its uptake by the body tissues. This O2

1. acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
2. raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg.
3. is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%
4. helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial tissues.

'Bundle of His' is a part of which one of the following organs in humans?

1. Brain
2. Heart
3. Kidney
4. Pancreas

Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood?

1. Albumin
2. Serum amylase
3. Globulin
4. Fibrinogen

Arteries are best defined as the vessels which

1. supply oxygenated blood to the different organs
2. carry blood away from the heart to different organs
3. break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein
4. carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ.

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure?

1. 130/90 mm Hg is considered high and requires treatment.
2. 100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal blood pressure.
3. 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active.
4. 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney.

A person with unknown blood group under ABO system, has suffered much blood loss in an accident and needs immediate blood transfusion. His friend who has valid certificate of his own blood type, offers for blood donation without delay. What would have been the type of blood group of the donor friend?

1. Type B
2. Type AB
3. Type O
4. Type A

Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid?

1. Peritubular capillaries
2. Convoluted tubules
3. Collecting ducts
4. Loop of Henle

Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of the human nephron?

1. Podocytes : create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman's capsule
2. Henle's loop : most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate
3. Distal convoluted tubule : reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries
4. Afferent arteriole : carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein.

Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function regulation?

1. When someone drinks a lot of water, ADH release is suppressed.
2. Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release.
3. An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of angiotensin II.
4. During summer when body loses a lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed.

Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctly matched with their respective inclusive skeletal category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non-matching pair.

1. array|l|l| Pair of skeletal parts & Category \ Sternum and ribs & Axial skeleton \ array
2. array|l|l| Pair of skeletal parts & Category \ Clavicle and glenoid & Pelvic girdle \ array
3. array|l|l| Pair of skeletal parts & Category \ Humerus and ulna & Appendicular skeleton \ array
4. array|l|l| Pair of skeletal parts & Category \ Malleus and stapes & Ear ossicles \ array

When a neuron is in resting state i.e., not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is

1. comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
2. equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
3. impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
4. comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions.

Match the source gland with its respective hormone and function and select the correct option.

1. array|l|l|l| Source gland & Hormone & Function \ Anterior pituitary & Oxytocin & Contraction of uterus \ & & muscles during child \ & & birth \ array
2. array|l|l|l| Source gland & Hormone & Function \ Posterior pituitary & Vasopressin & Stimulates reabsorption \ & & of water in the distal \ & & tubules in the nephron \ array
3. array|l|l|l| Source gland & Hormone & Function \ Corpus luteum & Estrogen & Supports pregnancy \ array
4. array|l|l|l| Source gland & Hormone & Function \ Thyroid & Thyroxine & Regulates blood \ & & calcium level \ array

Given below is an incomplete table on hormones, their source glands and one major effect of each on human body. Identify the option representing correct grouping of hormone, its gland and effect. array|l|l|l| Gland & Secretion & Effect on body \ A & Estrogen & Maintenance of \ & & secondary sexual \ & & characters \ Alpha cells of Islets & B & Raises blood sugar \ of Langerhans & & level \ Anterior pituitary & C & Over secretion leads \ & & to gigantism \ array

1. array|l|l|l| A & B & C \ Ovary & Glucagon & Growth hormone \ array
2. array|l|l|l| A & B & C \ Placenta & Insulin & Vasopressin \ array
3. array|l|l|l| A & B & C \ Ovary & Insulin & Calcitonin \ array
4. array|l|l|l| A & B & C \ Placenta & Glucagon & Calcitonin \ array

If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from :

1. Vagina to uterus
2. Testes to epididymis
3. Epididymis to vas deferens
4. Ovary to uterus

The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. The purpose served is for :

1. providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex
2. maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature
3. escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs
4. providing more space for the growth of epididymis

The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female reproductive system of humans. Which one set of three parts out of I-VI have been correctly identified? [Figure]

1. (I) Perimetrium, (II) Myometrium, (III) Fallopian tube
2. (II) Endometrium, (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae
3. (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) Cervix
4. (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus, (VI) Cervix

Which one of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India, as at present ?

1. IUDs (Intra uterine devices)
2. Tubectomy
3. Cervical caps
4. Diaphragms

Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy ?

1. Twelve weeks
2. Eighteen weeks
3. Six weeks
4. Eight weeks

What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man ( Homo sapiens) from his ancestors ?

1. Upright posture
2. Shortening of jaws
3. Binocular vision
4. Increasing cranial capacity

Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite ?

1. red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria
2. spleen of infected humans
3. Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito
4. Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito

Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the opposite strands. What is so special shown in it ? 5' .............. GAATTC ................ 3' 3' .............. CTTAAG ................ 5'

1. Start codon at the 5' end
2. Replication completed
3. Deletion mutation
4. Palindromic sequence of base pairs

There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does "co" part in it stand for ?

1. colon
2. coelom
3. coenzyme
4. coli

Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in :

1. Spectrophotometry
2. PCR
3. Tissue Culture
4. Gel electrophoresis

Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of :

1. Mice
2. Cow
3. Pig
4. Fish

The process of RNA interference has been used in the development of plants resistant to :

1. Nematodes
2. Fungi
3. Viruses
4. Insects

The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in :

1. Eustachian tube and stomach lining
2. Bile duct and oesophagus
3. Fallopian tubes and urethra
4. Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes

One very special feature in the earthworm Pheretima is that :

1. The S-shaped setae embedded in the integument are the defensive weapons used against the enemies
2. It has a long dorsal tubular heart
3. The typhlosole greatly increases the effective absorption area of the digested food in the intestine
4. Fertilisation of eggs occurs inside the body

Which of the following is correctly stated as it happens in the common cockroach?

1. Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood
2. The food is ground by mandibles and gizzard
3. Nitrogenous excretory product is urea
4. Malpighian tubules are excretory organs projecting out from the colon

The figure given below shows a small part of human lung where exchange of gases takes place. Select the option which represents labelled part (A, B, C or D) correctly identified along with its function. [Figure]

1. D : capillary wall - exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place here
2. B : red blood cells - transport of CO2 mainly.
3. A : alveolar cavity - main site of exchange of respiratory gases
4. C : arterial capillary - passes oxygen to tissues

Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of microorganisms in human body?

1. Epithelium of urogenital tract
2. Tears
3. Monocytes
4. Skin

A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?

1. ELISA
2. MRI
3. Ultra sound
4. WIDAL

At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?

1. When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells
2. When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
3. When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages large number of these
4. Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person

Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts coughing while swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to improper movement of

1. epiglottis
2. diaphragm
3. neck
4. tongue

The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rod type of photoreceptor cells of the human eye, is a derivative of

1. vitamin B1
2. vitamin C
3. vitamin D
4. vitamin A

Which one of the following enzymes carries out the initial step in the digestion of milk in humans?

1. Trypsin
2. Pepsin
3. Rennin
4. Lipase