NEET (UG) 2019

The correct Boolean operation represented by the circuit diagram drawn is : [figure]

1. OR
2. NAND
3. NOR
4. AND

A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. The electric field due to the sphere at a distance r from the centre :

1. zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as r increases for r > R
2. zero as r increases for r < R, increases as r increases for r > R.
3. decreases as r increases for r < R and for r > R.
4. increases as r increases for r < R and for r > R.

A force F = 20 + 10y acts on a particle in y-direction where F is in newton and y in meter. Work done by this force to move the particle from y = 0 to y = 1 m is :

1. 5 J
2. 25 J
3. 20 J
4. 30 J

In a double slit experiment, when light of wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular width of the first minima formed on a screen placed 1 m away, was found to be 0.2°. What will be the angular width of the first minima, ( water = 4/3) if the entire experimental apparatus is immersed in water?

1. 0.15°
2. 0.05°
3. 0.1°
4. 0.266°

Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in the figure with a DC source of emf E, and zero internal resistance. The ratio of power consumption by the bulbs when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in the situation when two from section A and one from section B are glowing, will be : [figure]

1. 4 : 9
2. 9 : 4
3. 1 : 2
4. 2 : 1

In which of the following processes, heat is neither absorbed nor released by a system?

1. adiabatic
2. isobaric
3. isochoric
4. isothermal

A cylindrical conductor of radius R is carrying a constant current. The plot of the magnitude of the magnetic field B with the distance d from the centre of the conductor, is correctly represented by the figure :

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

In the circuits shown below, the readings of voltmeters and the ammeters will be : [figure]

1. V1 = V2 and i1 = i2
2. V1 > V2 and i1 > i2
3. V1 > V2 and i1 = i2
4. V1 = V2 and i1 > i2

Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength?

1. blue
2. violet
3. red
4. green

Increase in temperature of a gas filled in a container would lead to :

1. increase in its kinetic energy
2. decrease in intermolecular distance
3. decrease in its pressure
4. increase in its mass

The radius of circle, the period of revolution, initial position and sense of revolution are indicated in the figure. [figure] y- projection of the radius vector of rotating particle P is :

1. y(t) = 4 ( t2 ), where y in m
2. y(t) = 3 ( 3 t2 ), where y in m
3. y(t) = 3 ( t2 ), where y in m
4. y(t) = -3 2 t, where y in m

Average velocity of a particle executing SHM in one complete vibration is :

1. A
2. A 22
3. A 2
4. zero

A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm is rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The torque required to stop after 2 revolutions is :

1. 2 10-3 N m
2. 2 10-6 N m
3. 2 106 N m
4. 12 10-4 N m

A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius 1 m. The coefficient of friction between the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is 0.1. The minimum angular velocity needed for the cylinder to keep the block stationary when the cylinder is vertical and rotating about its axis, will be : (g = 10 m/s2)

1. 102 rad/s
2. 10 rad/s
3. 10 rad/s
4. 10 rad/s

The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and is flowing due east. If he is standing on the south bank and wishes to cross the river along the shortest path, the angle at which he should make his strokes w.r.t. north is given by :

1. 0
2. 60
3. 45 west
4. 30 west

A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 is kept perpendicular to a magnetic field 5 10-5 T. When the plane of the coil is rotated by 90 around any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the emf induced in the coil will be :

1. 0.2 V
2. 0.02 V
3. 2 V
4. 2 10-3 V

In an experiment, the percentage of error occurred in the measurement of physical quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Then the maximum percentage of error in the measurement X, where X = A2B1/2 C1/3D3, will be :

1. 16%
2. -10\%
3. 10%
4. ( 313 )\%

The displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by y = A0 + A t + B t. Then the amplitude of its oscillation is given by :

1. A2 + B2
2. A + B
3. A + A2 + B2
4. A02 + (A + B)2

An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 10,000 V. Its de Broglie wavelength is (nearly) : (me = 9 10-31 kg)

1. 12.2 10-12 m
2. 12.2 10-13 m
3. 12.2 10-14 m
4. 12.2 nm

A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most likely to break when :

1. the wire is horizontal
2. inclined at an angle of 60 from vertical
3. the mass is at the lowest point
4. the mass is at the highest point

Two particles A and B are moving in uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii rA and rB with speed vA and vB respectively. Their time period of rotation is the same. The ratio of angular speed of A to that of B will be :

1. vA : vB
2. 1 : 1
3. rB : rA
4. rA : rB

A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of unknown length have their increase in length independent of increase in temperature. The length of aluminium rod is : ( Cu = 1.7 10-5 K-1 and Al = 2.2 10-5 K-1)

1. 119.9 cm
2. 88 cm
3. 68 cm
4. 6.8 cm

Ionized hydrogen atoms and α-particles with same momenta enter perpendicular to a constant magnetic field, B. The ratio of their radii of their paths rH : r will be :

1. 1 : 2
2. 4 : 1
3. 1 : 4
4. 2 : 1

When a block of mass M is suspended by a long wire of length L, the length of the wire becomes (L + l). The elastic potential energy stored in the extended wire is :

1. Mgl
2. MgL
3. 12Mgl
4. 12MgL

For a p-type semiconductor, which of the following statements is true?

1. Holes are the majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.
2. Holes are the majority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
3. Electrons are the majority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
4. Electrons are the majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.

The work done to raise a mass m from the surface of the earth to a height h, which is equal to the radius of the earth, is :

1. mgR
2. 2mgR
3. 12mgR
4. 32mgR

In total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle for the pair of media in contact, what will be angle of refraction?

1. equal to angle of incidence
2. 90
3. 180
4. 0

Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q and -Q respectively, are placed at certain distance apart and force acting between them is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then force between the charges becomes :

1. F
2. 16F9
3. 9F16
4. 4F3

-particle consists of :

1. 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons
2. 2 electrons and 4 protons only
3. 2 protons only
4. 2 protons and 2 neutrons only

Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u collides with another body B of mass 2 m, at rest. The collision is head on and elastic in nature. After the collision the fraction of energy lost by the colliding body A is :

1. 59
2. 49
3. 89
4. 19

A body weighs 200 N on the surface of earth. How much will it weigh half way down to the centre of the earth?

1. 200 N
2. 250 N
3. 100 N
4. 150 N

Pick the wrong answer in the context with rainbow.

1. An observer can see a rainbow when his front is towards the sun.
2. Rainbow is a combined effect of dispersion, refraction and reflection of sunlight.
3. When the light rays undergo two internal reflections in a water drop, a secondary rainbow is formed.
4. The order of colours is reversed in the secondary rainbow.

A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed of 20 cm/s. How much work is needed to stop it?

1. 1 J
2. 2 J
3. 3 J
4. 30 kJ

A small hole of area of cross-section 2 mm2 is present near the bottom of a fully filled open tank of height 2 m. Taking g = 10 m/s2, the rate of flow of water through the open hole would be nearly :

1. 8.9 10-6 m3/s
2. 2.23 10-6 m3/s
3. 6.4 10-6 m3/s
4. 12.6 10-6 m3/s

When an object is shot from the bottom of a long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle 60 with horizontal, it can travel a distance x1 along the plane. But when the inclination is decreased to 30 and the same object is shot with the same velocity, it can travel x2 distance. Then x1 : x2 will be :

1. 1 : 2
2. 2 : 1
3. 1 : 3
4. 1 : 2 3

A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 is being charged by a voltage source whose potential is changing at the rate of 3 V/s. The conduction current through the connecting wires, and the displacement current through the plates of the capacitor, would be, respectively :

1. zero, zero
2. zero, 60
3. 60 , 60
4. 60 , zero

The unit of thermal conductivity is :

1. J m-1 K-1
2. W m K-1
3. J m K-1
4. W m-1 K-1

Which of the following acts as a circuit protection device?

1. inductor
2. conductor
3. switch
4. fuse

A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is blown from a detergent solution having a surface tension of 2.5 10-2 N/m. The pressure inside the bubble equals the pressure at a point Z0 below the free surface of water in a container. Taking g = 10 m/s2, density of water = 103 kg/m3, the value of Z0 is :

1. 1 cm
2. 10 cm
3. 100 cm
4. 0.5 cm

The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is -3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies are, respectively.

1. 3.4 eV, -6.8 eV
2. 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV
3. -3.4 eV, -3.4 eV
4. -3.4 eV, -6.8 eV

Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal length f each, are kept coaxially in contact with each other such that the focal length of the combination is F1. When the space between the two lenses is filled with glycerin (which has the same refractive index ( = 1.5) as that of glass) then the equivalent focal length is F2. The ratio F1 : F2 will be :

1. 1 : 2
2. 2 : 3
3. 3 : 4
4. 2 : 1

Two parallel infinite line charges with linear charge densities + C/m and - C/m are placed at a distance of 2R in free space. What is the electric field mid-way between the two line charges?

1. 2 0R N/C
2. zero
3. 0R N/C
4. 2 0R N/C

In which of the following devices, the eddy current effect is not used?

1. magnetic braking in train
2. electromagnet
3. electric heater
4. induction furnace

A particle moving with velocity V is acted by three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR. The velocity of the particle will : [figure]

1. remain constant
2. increase
3. decrease
4. change according to the smallest force QR

At a point A on the earth’s surface the angle of dip, = +25 . At a point B on the earth's surface the angle of dip, = -25 . We can interpret that :

1. A is located in the southern hemisphere and B is located in the northern hemisphere.
2. A is located in the northern hemisphere and B is located in the southern hemisphere.
3. A and B are both located in the southern hemisphere.
4. A and B are both located in the northern hemisphere.

The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through Haber’s process is :

1. 10
2. 20
3. 30
4. 40

4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order of decreasing energy. The correct option is :

1. 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p
2. 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p
3. 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
4. 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d

Which of the following series of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen atom falls in visible region?

1. Paschen series
2. Brackett series
3. Lyman series
4. Balmer series

For the second period elements the correct increasing order of first ionization enthalpy is :

1. Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
2. Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
3. Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
4. Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne

The number of sigma ( ) and pi ( ) bonds in pent-3-en-1-yne is -

1. 11 bonds and 2 bonds
2. 13 bonds and no bonds
3. 10 bonds and 3 bonds
4. 8 bonds and 5 bonds

The correct structure of tribromooctaoxide is :

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

The manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral due to :

1. The -bonding involves overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of manganese
2. The -bonding involves overlap of d-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese
3. The -bonding involves overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese
4. There is no -bonding

Which of the following diatomic molecular species has only bonds according to Molecular Orbital Theory?

1. C2
2. Be2
3. O2
4. N2

In which case change in entropy is negative?

1. Sublimation of solid to gas
2. 2H(g) H2(g)
3. Evaporation of water
4. Expansion of a gas at constant temperature

Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a constant external pressure of 2 bar. The work done by the gas is [Given that 1 L bar = 100 J]

1. 25 J
2. 30 J
3. −30 J
4. 5 kJ

Conjugate base for Brönsted acids H2O and HF are :

1. OH- and F-, respectively
2. H3O+ and H2F+, respectively
3. OH- and H2F+, respectively
4. H3O+ and F-, respectively

pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The solubility product ( Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 is :

1. 0.125 10-15
2. 0.5 10-10
3. 0.5 10-15
4. 0.25 10-10

Which will make basic buffer?

1. 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M NH4OH
2. 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL of 0.1 M NH4OH
3. 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH
4. 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH

Which of the following reactions are disproportionation reaction? Select the correct option from the following :

1. A, C and D
2. A and B only
3. A and D only
4. A, B and C

Which of the following is incorrect statement?

1. GeX4 (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable than GeX2
2. SnF4 is ionic in nature
3. PbF4 is covalent in nature
4. SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed

Which of the following species is not stable?

1. [Sn(OH)6]2-
2. [SiCl6]2-
3. [SiF6]2-
4. [GeCl6]2-

The compound that is most difficult to protonate is :

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Among the following, the reaction that proceeds through an electrophilic substitution, is :

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

The most suitable reagent for the following conversion, is : [figure]

1. Zn / HCl
2. Hg2+/H+, H2O
3. Na / liquid NH3
4. H2, Pd/C, quinoline

An alkene “A” on reaction with O3 and Zn + H2O gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene “A” gives “B” as the major product. The structure of product “B” is :

1. H3C-CH2- Cl | CH3 |C-CH3
2. H3C- Cl |CH- CH3 | CH3 |CH
3. Cl-CH2-CH2- CH3 | CH3 |CH
4. H3C-CH2- CH2Cl |CH-CH3

Which is the correct thermal stability order for H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)?

1. H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
2. H2Se < H2Te < H2Po < H2O < H2S
3. H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
4. H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po

For an ideal solution, the correct option is :

1. mix H = 0 at constant T and P
2. mix G = 0 at constant T and P
3. mix S = 0 at constant T and P
4. mix V 0 at constant T and P

For a cell involving one electron E cell = 0.59 V at 298 K, the equilibrium constant for the cell reaction is : [Given that 2.303 RTF = 0.059 V at T = 298 K]

1. 1.0 1030
2. 1.0 1010
3. 1.0 102
4. 1.0 105

For the cell reaction 2Fe3+(aq) + 2I-(aq) 2Fe2+(aq) + I2(aq) E cell = 0.24 V at 298 K. The standard Gibbs energy ( r G ) of the cell reaction is : [Given that Faraday constant F = 96500 C mol-1]

1. 46.32 kJ mol-1
2. 23.16 kJ mol-1
3. -46.32 kJ mol-1
4. -23.16 kJ mol-1

If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the time (t) required for the completion of 99 % of the reaction is given by :

1. t = 4.606k
2. t = 2.303k
3. t = 0.693k
4. t = 6.909k

For the chemical reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) the correct option is :

1. - d[N2]dt = 2 d[NH3]dt
2. - d[N2]dt = 12 d[NH3]dt
3. 3 d[H2]dt = 2 d[NH3]dt
4. - 13 d[H2]dt = - 12 d[NH3]dt

Match the following : Which of the following is the correct option?

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Identify the incorrect statement related to PCl5 from the following :

1. Axial P–Cl bonds are longer than equatorial P–Cl bonds
2. PCl5 molecule is non-reactive
3. Three equatorial P–Cl bonds make an angle of 120° with each other
4. Two axial P–Cl bonds make an angle of 180° with each other

Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I with its structure in Column-II and assign the correct code :

1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in K4[Fe(CN)6] based on crystal field theory?

1. t2g4 eg2
2. t2g6 eg0
3. e3 t23
4. e4 t22

The structure of intermediate A in the following reaction, is : [figure]

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

The correct order of the basic strength of methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is :

1. (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
2. CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N
3. (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
4. (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH

The major product of the following reaction is : [figure]

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

The non-essential amino acid among the following is :

1. alanine
2. lysine
3. valine
4. leucine

The mixture that forms maximum boiling azeotrope is :

1. Ethanol + Water
2. Acetone + Carbon disulphide
3. Heptane + Octane
4. Water + Nitric acid

A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has molar volume 20 percent smaller than that for an ideal gas under the same conditions. The correct option about the gas and its compressibility factor (Z) is -

1. Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant
2. Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
3. Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant
4. Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant

The method used to remove temporary hardness of water is :

1. Ion-exchange method
2. Synthetic resins method
3. Calgon’s method
4. Clark’s method

Which of the following is an amphoteric hydroxide?

1. Mg(OH)2
2. Be(OH)2
3. Sr(OH)2
4. Ca(OH)2

Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer require an alkaline earth metal (M) as the cofactor. M is

1. Ca
2. Sr
3. Be
4. Mg

Among the following, the one that is not a green house gas is :

1. ozone
2. sulphur dioxide
3. nitrous oxide
4. methane

A compound is formed by cation C and anion A. The anions form hexagonal close packed (hcp) lattice and the cations occupy 75\% of octahedral voids. The formula of the compound is :

1. C3A4
2. C4A3
3. C2A3
4. C3A

Which mixture of the solution will lead to the formation of negatively charged colloidal [AgI] I- sol. ?

1. 50 mL of 2 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
2. 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M KI
3. 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
4. 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 2 M KI

Which one is malachite from the following?

1. Fe3O4
2. CuCO3 Cu(OH)2
3. CuFeS2
4. Cu(OH)2

The biodegradable polymer is :

1. nylon-6
2. Buna-S
3. nylon-6, 6
4. nylon-2-nylon 6

Among the following, the narrow spectrum antibiotic is :

1. amoxycillin
2. chloramphenicol
3. penicillin G
4. ampicillin

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Infective constituent in viruses is the protein coat
2. Prions consist of abnormally folded proteins
3. Viroids lack a protein coat
4. Viruses are obligate parasites

Select the correctly written scientific name of Mango which was first described by Carolus Linnaeus:

1. Mangifera indica
2. Mangifera Indica
3. Mangifera indica Car. Linn.
4. Mangifera indica Linn.

From evolutionary point of view, retention of the female gametophyte with developing young embryo on the parent sporophyte for some time, is first observed in:

1. Pteridophytes
2. Mosses
3. Liverworts
4. Gymnosperms

Grass leaves curl inward during very dry weather. Select the most appropriate reason from the following:

1. Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy mesophyll
2. Tyloses in vessels
3. Closure of stomata
4. Flaccidity of bulliform cells

Phloem in gymnosperms lacks:

1. Companion cells only
2. Both sieve tubes and companion cells
3. Albuminous cells and sieve cells
4. Sieve tubes only

What is the direction of movement of sugars in phloem?

1. Downward
2. Bi-directional
3. Non-multidirectional
4. Upward

Which of the statements given below is not true about formation of Annual Rings in trees?

1. Activity of cambium depends upon variation in climate.
2. Annual rings are not prominent in trees of temperate region.
3. Annual ring is a combination of spring wood and autumn wood produced in a year.
4. Differential activity of cambium causes light and dark bands of tissue – early and late wood respectively

Which of the following pair of organelles does not contain DNA?

1. Lysosomes and Vacuoles
2. Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria
3. Mitochondria and Lysosomes
4. Chloroplast and Vacuoles

Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria is incorrect?

1. Inner membrane is convoluted with infoldings
2. Mitochondrial matrix contains single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes
3. Outer membrane is permeable to monomers of carbohydrates, fats and proteins
4. Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in outer membrane

Which of the following statements is not correct?

1. Lysosomes are membrane bound structures.
2. Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum.
3. Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes.
4. The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are active under acidic pH.

Concanavalin A is:

1. a lectin
2. a pigment
3. an alkaloid
4. an essential oil

Consider the following statements: Select the correct option

1. Both A and B are false
2. A is false but B is true
3. Both A and B are true
4. A is true but B is false

Cells in G0 phase:

1. suspend the cell cycle
2. terminate the cell cycle
3. exit the cell cycle
4. enter the cell cycle

The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is:

1. S G1 G2 M
2. G1 S G2 M
3. M G1 G2 S
4. G1 G2 S M

Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is catalyzed by

1. Enolase
2. Phosphofructokinase
3. Aldolase
4. Hexokinase

What is the site of perception of photoperiod necessary for induction of flowering in plants?

1. Shoot apex
2. Leaves
3. Lateral buds
4. Pulvinus

It takes very long time for pineapple plants to produce flowers. Which combination of hormones can be applied to artificially induce flowering in pineapple plants throughout the year to increase yield?

1. Gibberellin and Abscisic acid
2. Cytokinin and Abscisic acid
3. Auxin and Ethylene
4. Gibberellin and Cytokinin

Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin is :

1. 0.07
2. 0.09
3. 0.9
4. 0.7

In some plants, the female gamete develops into embryo without fertilization. This phenomenon is known as :

1. Syngamy
2. Parthenocarpy
3. Parthenogenesis
4. Autogamy

Pinus seed cannot germinate and establish without fungal association. This is because :

1. it has very hard seed coat
2. its seeds contain inhibitors that prevent germination
3. its embryo is immature
4. it has obligate association with mycorrhizae

Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilization development in flowering plants is incorrect?

1. Central cell develops into endosperm
2. Ovules develop into embryo sac
3. Ovary develops into fruit
4. Zygote develops into embryo

Placentation, in which ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is :

1. Parietal
2. Free central
3. Basal
4. Axile

Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as

1. Hilum
2. Tegmen
3. Chalaza
4. Perisperm

What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the synergid?

1. One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s) with synergid nucleus.
2. One fuses with the egg and other fuses with central cell nuclei.
3. One fuses with the egg, other(s) degenerate(s) in the synergid.
4. All fuse with the egg.

The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes was explained by :

1. Alfred Sturtevant
2. Gregor J. Mendel
3. Sutton Boveri
4. T.H. Morgan

In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed with a white flower and in F1 generation, pink flowers were obtained. When pink flowers were selfed, the F2 generation showed white, red and pink flowers. Choose the incorrect statement from the following :

1. Ratio of F2 is 14 (Red) : 24 (Pink) : 14 (White)
2. Law of Segregation does not apply in this experiment
3. This experiment does not follow the Principle of Dominance
4. Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete dominance

What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps?

1. A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 1\% cross over.
2. A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 50\% cross over.
3. A unit of distance between two expressed genes, representing 10\% cross over.
4. A unit of distance between two expressed genes, representing 100\% cross over.

What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine development, gynaecomastia, and is sterile?

1. Edward syndrome
2. Down’s syndrome
3. Turner’s syndrome
4. Klinefelter’s syndrome

Select the incorrect statement.

1. In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny depends on the type of sperm rather than egg.
2. Human males have one of their sex-chromosome much shorter than the other.
3. Male fruit fly is heterogametic
4. In male grasshoppers, 50\% of sperms have no sex-chromosome.

Purines found both in DNA and RNA are:

1. Guanine and cytosine
2. Cytosine and thymine
3. Adenine and thymine
4. Adenine and guanine

Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to :

1. DNA polymorphism
2. Novel DNA sequences
3. Genes expressed as RNA
4. Polypeptide expression

Under which of the following conditions will there be no change in the reading frame of following mRNA? 5' AACAGCGGUGCUAUU 3'

1. Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th positions respectively
2. Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th positions
3. Insertion of G at 5th position
4. Deletion of G from 5th position

The shorter and longer arms of a submetacentric chromosome are referred to as:

1. q-arm and p-arm respectively
2. m-arm and n-arm respectively
3. s-arm and l-arm respectively
4. p-arm and q-arm respectively

Which of the following features of genetic code does allow bacteria to produce human insulin by recombinant DNA technology?

1. Genetic code is nearly universal
2. Genetic code is specific
3. Genetic code is not ambiguous
4. Genetic code is redundant

Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their respective products : Select the correct option.

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

The concept of " Omnis cellula-e cellula" regarding cell division was first proposed by :

1. Schleiden
2. Aristotle
3. Rudolf Virchow
4. Theodore Schwann

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Conidia are produced exogenously and ascospores endogenously.
2. Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread-like hyphae.
3. Morels and truffles are edible delicacies.
4. Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids and LSD.

Select the correct group of biocontrol agents.

1. Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma
2. Nostoc, Azospirillum, Nucleopolyhedrovirus
3. Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic virus, Aphids
4. Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus thuringiensis

Match the following organisms with the products they produce : Select the correct option.

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(v)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(v)

Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria helpful in carrying out :

1. Nitrification
2. Denitrification
3. Nitrogen fixation
4. Chemoautotrophic fixation

Which of the following can be used as a biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant disease?

1. Anabaena
2. Lactobacillus
3. Trichoderma
4. Chlorella

Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent?

1. Streptokinase
2. Lipases
3. Cyclosporin A
4. Statin

The Earth summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was called :

1. to assess threat posed to native species by invasive weed species
2. for immediate steps to discontinue use of CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer
3. to reduce CO2 emissions and global warming
4. for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilization of its benefits

Match Column-I with Column –II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Which of the following is the most important cause for animals and plants being driven to extinction?

1. Economic exploitation
2. Alien species invasion
3. Habitat loss and fragmentation
4. Drought and floods

Which of the following ecological pyramids is generally inverted?

1. Pyramid of biomass in a forest
2. Pyramid of biomass in a sea
3. Pyramid of numbers in grassland
4. Pyramid of energy

Which one of the following is not a method of in situ conservation of biodiversity?

1. Botanical Garden
2. Sacred Grove
3. Biosphere Reserve
4. Wildlife Sanctuary

Xylem translocates:

1. Water, mineral salts and some organic nitrogen only
2. Water, mineral salts, some organic nitrogen and hormones
3. Water only
4. Water and mineral salts only

Select the incorrect statement.

1. Inbreeding selects harmful recessive genes that reduce fertility and productivity.
2. Inbreeding helps in accumulation of superior genes and elimination of undesirable genes.
3. Inbreeding increases homozygosity.
4. Inbreeding is essential to evolve purelines in any animal.

Which of the following protocols did aim for reducing emission of chlorofluorocarbons into the atmosphere?

1. Gothenburg Protocol
2. Geneva Protocol
3. Montreal Protocol
4. Kyoto Protocol

Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified plastic, has proved to be a good material for :

1. Construction of roads
2. Making tubes and pipes
3. Making plastic sacks
4. use as a fertilizer

Which of the following pairs of gases is mainly responsible for green house effect?

1. Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide
2. Carbon dioxide and Methane
3. Ozone and Ammonia
4. Oxygen and Nitrogen

Which of these following methods is the most suitable for disposal of nuclear waste?

1. Dump the waste within rocks under deep ocean
2. Bury the waste within rocks deep below the Earth’s surface
3. Shoot the waste into space
4. Bury the waste under Antarctic ice-cover

Consider following features: Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics

1. Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata
2. Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata
3. Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
4. Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca

Match the following organisms with their respective characteristics: Select the correct option from the following:

1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Select the correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth:

1. Pharynx Oesophagus Gizzard Ileum Crop Colon Rectum
2. Pharynx Oesophagus Ileum Crop Gizzard Colon Rectum
3. Pharynx Oesophagus Crop Gizzard Ileum Colon Rectum
4. Pharynx Oesophagus Gizzard Crop Ileum Colon Rectum

The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In humans, these cells are mainly present in:

1. Eustachian tube and Salivary duct
2. Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
3. Bile duct and Bronchioles
4. Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct

Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL respectively. What will be his Expiratory Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL?

1. 2200 mL
2. 2700 mL
3. 1500 mL
4. 1700 mL

Match the Column-I with Column-II : Select the correct option.

1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(v)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(v), (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(v), (d)-(iv)

What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?

1. 100 beats per minute
2. 125 beats per minute
3. 50 beats per minute
4. 75 beats per minute

Which of the following factors is responsible for the formation of concentrated urine?

1. Secretion of erythropoietin by Juxtaglomerular complex.
2. Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular filtration.
3. Low levels of antidiuretic hormone.
4. Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards inner medullary interstitium in the kidneys.

Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis may result in : Which of the following options is the most appropriate?

1. C and D only
2. A and D only
3. A and B only
4. B and C only

Select the correct option :

1. Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs are connected dorsally to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum
2. There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, three pairs of vertebrochondral and two pairs of vertebral ribs
3. 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs articulate directly with the sternum
4. 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.

Which of the following muscular disorders is inherited?

1. Myasthenia gravis
2. Botulism
3. Tetany
4. Muscular dystrophy

Which part of the brain is responsible for thermoregulation?

1. Corpus callosum
2. Medulla oblongata
3. Cerebrum
4. Hypothalamus

Match the following hormones with the respective disease : Select the correct option.

1. (a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

How does steroid hormone influence the cellular activities?

1. Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell membrane
2. Using aquaporin channels as second messenger
3. Changing the permeability of the cell membrane
4. Binding to DNA and forming a gene-hormone complex

Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs :

1. Before entry of sperm into ovum
2. Simultaneously with first cleavage
3. After entry of sperm but before fertilization
4. After fertilization

Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system :

1. Seminiferous tubules Vasa efferentia Epididymis Inguinal canal Urethra
2. Testis Epididymis Vasa efferentia Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct Inguinal canal Urethra Urethral meatus
3. Testis Epididymis Vasa efferentia Rete testis Inguinal canal Urethra
4. Seminiferous tubules Rete testis Vasa efferentia Epididymis Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct Urethra Urethral meatus

Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone?

1. CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
2. Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods
3. Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
4. Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills

Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices.

1. Progestasert, LNG-20
2. Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
3. Vaults, LNG-20
4. Multiload 375, Progestasert

A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population?

1. 0.16 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)
2. 0.16 (AA); 0.36 (Aa); 0.48 (aa)
3. 0.36 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.16 (aa)
4. 0.16 (AA); 0.24 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)

Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries, are :

1. small and directional
2. small and directionless
3. random and directional
4. random and directionless

Match the hominids with their correct brain size : Select the correct option.

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

In a species, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97\% of the newborn with an average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99\% of the infants born with weights from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process is taking place?

1. Disruptive Selection
2. Cyclical Selection
3. Directional Selection
4. Stabilizing Selection

Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory test for typhoid.

1. Salmonella typhi/ Anthrone test
2. Salmonella typhi/ Widal test
3. Plasmodium vivax/ UTI test
4. Streptococcus pneumoniae/ Widal test

Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation is very essential to impart immunity to the newborn infants because it contains :

1. Macrophages
2. Immunoglobulin A
3. Natural killer cells
4. Monocytes

Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not completely curable ?

1. Genital herpes
2. Chlamydiasis
3. Gonorrhoea
4. Genital warts

Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by :

1. glycosylation of morphine
2. nitration of morphine
3. methylation of morphine
4. acetylation of morphine

Which of the following immune responses is responsible for rejection of kidney graft?

1. Inflammatory immune response
2. Cell-mediated immune response
3. Auto-immune response
4. Humoral immune response

What triggers activation of protoxin to active Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in boll worm?

1. Acidic pH of stomach
2. Body temperature
3. Alkaline pH of gut
4. Moist surface of midgut

DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with :

1. Methanol at room temperature
2. Chilled chloroform
3. Isopropanol
4. Chilled ethanol

Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect statement.

1. The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand
2. The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA
3. The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA
4. The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands

Which of the following glucose transporters is insulin-dependent?

1. GLUT III
2. GLUT IV
3. GLUT I
4. GLUT II

Identify the cells whose secretion protects the lining of gastro-intestinal tract from various enzymes.

1. Oxyntic Cells
2. Duodenal Cells
3. Chief Cells
4. Goblet Cells

Match the following structures with their respective location in organs : Select the correct option

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Cornea is convex, transparent layer which is highly vascularised
2. Cornea consists of dense matrix of collagen and is the most sensitive portion of the eye.
3. Cornea is an external, transparent and protective proteinaceous covering of the eye-ball
4. Cornea consists of dense connective tissue of elastin and can repair itself.

Which of the following is true for Golden rice?

1. It is drought tolerant, developed using Agrobacterium vector.
2. It has yellow grains, because of a gene introduced from a primitive variety of rice.
3. It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from daffodil.
4. It is pest resistant, with a gene from Bacillus thuringiensis.

Due to increasing air-borne allergens and pollutants, many people in urban areas are suffering from respiratory disorder causing wheezing due to :

1. Proliferation of fibrous tissues and damage of the alveolar walls
2. Reduction in the secretion of surfactants by pneumocytes
3. Benign growth on mucous lining of nasal cavity
4. Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles

Which one of the following equipments is essentially required for growing microbes on a large scale, for industrial production of enzymes?

1. Industrial oven
2. Bioreactor
3. BOD incubator
4. Sludge digester