AIPMT 2010 (Prelims)

The dimension of 12 0 E2, where 0 is permittivity of free space and E is electric field, is

1. ML2T-2
2. ML-1T-2
3. ML2T-1
4. MLT-1

A particle moves a distance x in time t according to equation x = (t + 5)-1. The acceleration of particle is proportional to

1. (velocity)3/2
2. (distance)2
3. (distance)-2
4. (velocity)2/3

A ball is dropped from a high rise platform at t = 0 starting from rest. After 6 seconds another ball is thrown downwards from the same platform with a speed v. The two balls meet at t = 18 s. What is the value of v? (Take g = 10 m/s2)

1. 75 m/s
2. 55 m/s
3. 40 m/s
4. 60 m/s

A particle has initial velocity (3 i + 4 j) and has acceleration (0.4 i + 0.3 j). Its speed after 10 s is

1. 7 units
2. 7 2 units
3. 8.5 units
4. 10 units

Six vectors, a through f have the magnitudes and directions indicated in the figure. Which of the following statements is true? [figure]

1. b + c = f
2. d + c = f
3. d + e = f
4. b + e = f

A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in the figure. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the cart is . The acceleration of the cart that will prevent the block from falling satisfies [figure]

1. > mg
2. > g m
3. g
4. < g

A ball moving with velocity 2 m/s collides head on with another stationary ball of double the mass. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, then their velocities (in m/s) after collision will be

1. 0, 1
2. 1, 1
3. 1, 0.5
4. 0, 2

An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. Water passes through the pipe and leaves it with a velocity of 2 m/s. The mass per unit length of water in the pipe is 100 kg/m. What is the power of the engine?

1. 400 W
2. 200 W
3. 100 W
4. 800 W

A circular disk of moment of inertia It is rotating in a horizontal plane, about its symmetry axis, with a constant angular speed i. Another disk of moment of inertia Ib is dropped coaxially onto the rotating disk. Initially the second disk has zero angular speed. Eventually both the disks rotate with a constant angular speed . The energy lost by the initially rotating disc to friction is

1. 12 Ib2(It + Ib) i2
2. 12 It2(It + Ib) i2
3. Ib - It(It + Ib) i2
4. 12 Ib It(It + Ib) i2

Two particles which are initially at rest, move towards each other under the action of their internal attraction. If their speeds are v and 2v at any instant, then the speed of centre of mass of the system will be :

1. 2v
2. zero
3. 1.5 v
4. v

A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity . A coin is placed at a distance r from the centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is . The coin will revolve with the record if

1. r = 2
2. r < 2
3. r 2
4. r 2

A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The magnitude of the gravitational potential at a point situated at a/2 distance from the centre, will be :

1. GMa
2. 2GMa
3. 3GMa
4. 4GMa

The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A and B of the earth, are 4R and R, respectively. If the speed of satellite A is 3V, then the speed of satellite B will be

1. 3V4
2. 6V
3. 12V
4. 3V2

A man of 50 kg mass is standing in a gravity free space at a height of 10 m above the floor. He throws a stone of 0.5 kg mass downwards with a speed 2 m/s. When the stone reaches the floor, the distance of the man above the floor will be

1. 9.9 m
2. 10.1 m
3. 10 m
4. 20 m

A cylindrical metallic rod in thermal contact with two reservoirs of heat at its two ends conducts an amount of heat Q in time t. The metallic rod is melted and the material is formed into a rod of half the radius of the original rod. What is the amount of heat conducted by the new rod, when placed in thermal contact with the two reservoirs in time t?

1. Q4
2. Q16
3. 2Q
4. Q2

The total radiant energy per unit area, normal to the direction of incidence, received at a distance R from the centre of a star of radius r, whose outer surface radiates as a black body at a temperature T K is given by

1. 2T4R2
2. 2T44 2
3. 2T4R4
4. 4 2T4R2

Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer surface of radius r, radiating like a black body at temperature t C, the power received by a unit surface, (normal to the incident rays) at a distance R from the centre of the sun is where is the Stefan's constant.

1. r2 (t + 273)44 2
2. 16 2r2 4R2
3. r2 (t + 273)4R2
4. 4 2 4R2

If and represent the increase in internal energy and work done by the system respectively in a thermodynamical process, which of the following is true?

1. = - , in an adiabatic process
2. = , in an isothermal process
3. = , in an adiabatic process
4. = - , in an isothermal process

The displacement of a particle along the x-axis is given by x = a 2 . The motion of the particle corresponds to

1. simple harmonic motion of frequency /
2. simple harmonic motion of frequency 3 /2
3. non simple harmonic motion
4. simple harmonic motion of frequency /2

The period of oscillation of a mass M suspended from a spring of negligible mass is T. If along with it another mass M is also suspended, the period of oscillation will now be

1. T
2. T 2
3. 2T
4. 2T

A transverse wave is represented by y = A ( - kx). For what value of the wavelength is the wave velocity equal to the maximum particle velocity?

1. /2
3. 2
4. A

A tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz makes 4 beats per second with the vibrating string of a piano. The beat frequency decreases to 2 beats per sec when the tension in the piano string is slightly increased. The frequency of the piano string before increasing the tension was

1. 510 Hz
2. 514 Hz
3. 516 Hz
4. 508 Hz

Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated by a distance d. If F is the force of repulsion between the ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion will be (e being the charge on an electron)

1. 4 0 F d2e2
2. 4 0 F e2d2
3. 4 0 F d2e2
4. 4 0 F d2q2

A square surface of side L meter in the plane of the paper is placed in a uniform electric field E (volt/m) acting along the same plane at an angle with the horizontal side of the square as shown in figure. [figure] The electric flux linked to the surface, in units of volt m is

1. EL2
2. EL2
3. EL2
4. zero

A series combination of n1 capacitors, each of value C1, is charged by a source of potential difference 4V. When another parallel combination of n2 capacitors, each of value C2, is charged by a source of potential difference V, it has the same (total) energy stored in it as the first combination has. The value of C2, in terms of C1, is then

1. 2C1n1 n2
2. 16 n2n1C1
3. 2 n2n1C1
4. 16C1n1 n2

Consider the following two statements. Which of the following is correct?

1. Both (A) and (B) are wrong
2. (A) is correct and (B) is wrong
3. (A) is wrong and (B) is correct
4. Both (A) and (B) are correct

A potentiometer circuit is set up as shown. The potential gradient, across the potentiometer wire, is k volt/cm and the ammeter, present in the circuit, reads 1.0 A when two way key is switched off. The balance points, when the key between the terminals (i) 1 and 2 (ii) 1 and 3, is plugged in, are found to be at length l1 cm and l2 cm respectively. The magnitudes, of the resistors R and X, in ohms, are then, equal, respectively, to [figure]

1. k(l2 - l1) and kl2
2. kl1 and k(l2 - l1)
3. k(l2 - l1) and kl1
4. kl1 and kl2

Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a uniform frequency f Hz. The magnitude of magnetic induction at the center of the ring is

1. 0 q f2 R
2. 0 q f2R
3. 0 q2fR
4. 0 q2 f R

A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 100 ohm and gives a full scale deflection for 30 mA current. If it is to work as a voltmeter of 30 volt range, the resistance required to be added will be

1. 900
2. 1800
3. 500
4. 1000

A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 100 ohm and gives a full scale deflection for 30 mA current. If it is to work as a voltmeter of 30 volt range, the resistance required to be added will be

1. 900
2. 1800
3. 500
4. 1000

A square current carrying loop is suspended in a uniform magnetic field acting in the plane of the loop. If the force on one arm of the loop is F, the net force on the remaining three arms of the loop is

1. 3 F
2. - F
3. -3 F
4. F

Electromagnets are made of soft iron because soft iron has

1. low retentivity and high coercive force
2. high retentivity and high coercive force
3. low retentivity and low coercive force
4. high retentivity and low coercive force

A vibration magnetometer placed in magnetic meridian has a small bar magnet. The magnet executes oscillations with a time period of 2 s in earth's horizontal magnetic field of 24 microtesla. When a horizontal field of 18 microtesla is produced opposite to the earth's field by placing a current carrying wire, the new time period of magnet will be

1. 1 s
2. 2 s
3. 3 s
4. 4 s

A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field, B = 0.025 T with its plane perpendicular to the field. The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of 1 mm s-1. The induced emf when the radius is 2 cm, is

1. 2
3. 2
4. 2

In the given circuit the readings of voltmeters V1 and V2 are 300 volts each. The readings of the voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are respectively [figure]

1. 150 V, 2.2 A
2. 220 V, 2.2 A
3. 220 V, 2.0 A
4. 100 V, 2.0 A

A 220 volt input is supplied to a transformer. The output circuit draws a current of 2.0 ampere at 440 volts. If the efficiency of the transformer is 80%, the current drawn by the primary windings of the transformer is

1. 3.6 ampere
2. 2.8 ampere
3. 2.5 ampere
4. 5.0 ampere

Which of the following statements is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves?

1. Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and same time.
2. The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors.
3. Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave.
4. These waves do not require any material medium for propagation.

A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium of refractive index , falls on a surface separating the medium from air at an angle of incidence of 45 . For which of the following value of the ray can undergo total internal reflection?

1. = 1.33
2. = 1.40
3. = 1.50
4. = 1.25

A lens having focal length f and aperture of diameter d forms an image of intensity I. Aperture of diameter d2 in central region of lens is covered by a black paper. Focal length of lens and intensity of image now will be respectively

1. f and I4
2. 3f4 and I2
3. f and 3I4
4. f2 and I2

A beam of cathode rays is subjected to crossed electric (E) and magnetic fields (B). The fields are adjusted such that the beam is not deflected. The specific charge of the cathode rays is given by (Where V is the potential difference between cathode and anode)

1. B22VE2
2. 2VB2E2
3. 2VE2B2
4. E22VB2

A source S1 is producing 1015 photons per second of wavelength 5000 A. Another source S2 is producing 1.02 1015 photons per second of wavelength 5100 A. Then, (power of S2)/(power of S1) is equal to

1. 1.00
2. 1.02
3. 1.04
4. 0.98

The potential difference that must be applied to stop the fastest photoelectrons emitted by a nickel surface, having work function 5.01 eV, when ultraviolet light of 200 nm falls on it, must be

1. 2.4 V
2. -1.2 V
3. -2.4 V
4. 1.2 V

The mass of a 73Li nucleus is 0.042 u less than the sum of the masses of all its nucleons. The binding energy per nucleon of 73Li nucleus is nearly

1. 46 MeV
2. 5.6 MeV
3. 3.9 MeV
4. 23 MeV

The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is -13.6 eV. The energy of a He+ ion in the first excited state will be

1. -13.6 eV
2. -27.2 eV
3. -54.4 eV
4. -6.8 eV

The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is -13.6 eV. The energy of a He+ ion in the first excited state will be

1. -13.6 eV
2. -27.2 eV
3. -54.4 eV
4. -6.8 eV

An alpha nucleus of energy 12mv2 bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the distance of closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to

1. 1Ze
2. v2
3. 1m
4. 1v4

To get an output Y = 1 in given circuit which of the following input will be correct? [figure]

1. A 1, B 0, C 0
2. A 1, B 0, C 1
3. A 1, B 1, C 0
4. A 0, B 1, C 0

Which one of the following statements is false?

1. Pure Si doped with trivalent impurities gives a p-type semiconductor.
2. Majority carriers in a n-type semiconductor are holes.
3. Minority carriers in a p-type semiconductor are electrons.
4. The resistance of intrinsic semiconductor decreases with increase of temperature.

Which one of the following bonds produces a solid that reflects light in the visible region and whose electrical conductivity decreases with temperature and has high melting point?

1. metallic bonding
2. van der Waals' bonding
3. ionic bonding
4. covalent bonding

The device that can act as a complete electronic circuit is

1. junction diode
2. integrated circuit
3. junction transistor
4. zener diode

The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as N0 counts per minute at t = 0 and N0/e counts per minute at t = 5 minutes. The time (in minutes) at which the activity reduces to half its value is

1. e 25
2. 5 e 2
3. 5 10 2
4. 5 e 2

A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100 and an output impedance of 200 . The power gain of the amplifier is

1. 500
2. 1000
3. 1250
4. 50

The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of a triatomic gas is ( NA = 6.02 1023 mol-1)

1. 6.026 1022
2. 1.806 1023
3. 3.600 1023
4. 1.800 1022

25.3 g of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3 is dissolved in enough water to make 250 mL of solution. If sodium carbonate dissociates completely, molar concentration of sodium ion, Na+ and carbonate ions, CO32- are respectively (Molar mass of Na2CO3 = 106 g mol-1)

1. 0.955 M and 1.910 M
2. 1.910 M and 0.955 M
3. 1.90 M and 1.910 M
4. 0.477 M and 0.477 M

The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii among the following isoelectronic species is

1. Ca2+ > K+ > S2- > Cl-
2. Cl- > S2- > Ca2+ > K+
3. S2- > Cl- > K+ > Ca2+
4. K+ > Ca2+ > Cl- > S2-

Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with negative sign for the elements O, S, F and Cl ?

1. Cl < F < O < S
2. O < S < F < Cl
3. F < S < O < Cl
4. S < O < Cl < F

In which of the following pairs of molecules/ ions, the central atoms have sp2 hybridisation ?

1. NO2- and NH3
2. BF3 and NO2-
3. NH2- and H2O
4. BF3 and NH2-

Which one of the following species does not exist under normal conditions?

1. Be2+
2. Be2
3. B2
4. Li2

In which one of the following species the central atom has the type of hybridization which is not the same as that present in the other three ?

1. SF4
2. I3-
3. SbCl52-
4. PCl5

For an endothermic reaction, energy of activation is Ea and enthalpy of reaction is H (both of these in kJ/mol). Minimum value of Ea will be

1. less than H
2. equal to H
3. more than H
4. equal to zero

Standard entropies of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50 J K-1 mol-1 respectively. For the reaction 12X2 + 32Y2 XY3, H = -30 kJ, to be at equilibrium, the temperature should be

1. 750 K
2. 1000 K
3. 1250 K
4. 500 K

If pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12, the value of its Ksp is

1. 4.00 10-6 M3
2. 4.00 10-7 M3
3. 5.00 10-6 M3
4. 5.00 10-7 M3

What is [H+] in mol/L of a solution that is 0.20 M in CH3COONa and 0.10 M in CH3COOH? Ka for CH3COOH = 1.8 10-5

1. 3.5 10-4
2. 1.1 10-5
3. 1.8 10-5
4. 9.0 10-6

In which of the following equilibrium Kc and Kp are not equal?

1. 2NO(g) N2(g) + O2(g)
2. SO2(g) + NO2(g) SO3(g) + NO(g)
3. H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
4. 2C(s) + O2(g) 2CO(g)

In a buffer solution containing equal concentration of B- and HB, the Kb for B- is 10-10. The pH of buffer solution is

1. 10
2. 7
3. 6
4. 4

Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic reagent?

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

In the following the most stable conformation of n-butane is

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Liquid hydrocarbons can be converted to a mixture of gaseous hydrocarbons by

1. oxidation
2. cracking
3. distillation under reduced pressure
4. hydrolysis

The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of FeCl3 gives X and reaction in presence of light gives Y. Thus, X and Y are

1. X = Benzal chloride, Y = o-chlorotoluene
2. X = m-chlorotoluene, Y = p-chlorotoluene
3. X = o- and p-chlorotoluene, Y = Trichloromethyl benzene
4. X = Benzyl chloride, Y = m-chlorotoluene

In a set of reactions, ethylbenzene yielded a product D. [figure] D would be

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Which one is most reactive towards SN1 reaction?

1. C6H5CH(C6H5)Br
2. C6H5CH(CH3)Br
3. C6H5C(CH3)(C6H5)Br
4. C6H5CH2Br

The correct order of increasing reactivity of [figure] C–X bond towards nucleophile in the following compounds is

1. I < II < IV < III
2. II < III < I < IV
3. IV < III < I < II
4. III < II < I < IV

Given are cyclohexanol (I), acetic acid (II), 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol (III) and phenol (IV). In these the order of decreasing acidic character will be

1. III > II > IV > I
2. II > III > I > IV
3. II > III > IV > I
4. III > IV > II > I

Among the following four compounds (i) Phenol (ii) Methyl phenol (iii) Meta-nitrophenol (iv) Para-nitrophenol The acidity order is

1. (iv) > (iii) > (i) > (ii)
2. (iii) > (iv) > (i) > (ii)
3. (i) > (iv) > (iii) > (ii)
4. (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv)

Which of the following compounds has the most acidic nature?

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Which of the following reactions will not result in the formation of carbon-carbon bonds?

1. Reimer-Tiemann reaction
2. Cannizzaro reaction
3. Wurtz reaction
4. Friedel-Crafts acylation

Acetamide is treated with the following reagents separately. Which one of these would yield methyl amine?

1. NaOH/Br2
2. Sodalime
3. Hot conc. H2SO4
4. PCl5

Among the given compounds, the most susceptible to nucleophilic attack at the carbonyl group is

1. CH3COOCH3
2. CH3CONH2
3. CH3COOCOCH3
4. CH3COCl

Which of the following statements about primary amines is false?

1. Alkyl amines are stronger bases than aryl amines.
2. Alkyl amines react with nitrous acid to produce alcohols.
3. Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to produce phenols.
4. Alkyl amines are stronger bases than ammonia.

Aniline in a set of the following reactions yielded a coloured product Y. [figure] The structure of 'Y' would be

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Which one of the following does not exhibit the phenomenon of mutarotation?

1. (+) Sucrose
2. (+) Lactose
3. (+) Maltose
4. (−) Fructose

An aqueous solution is 1.00 molal in KI. Which change will cause the vapour pressure of the solution to increase?

1. Addition of NaCl
2. Addition of Na2SO4
3. Addition of 1.00 molal KI
4. Addition of water

A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g mol-1) has been prepared by dissolving 68.5 g of sucrose in 1000 g of water. The freezing point of the solution obtained will be (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol-1)

1. -0.372 C
2. -0.520 C
3. +0.372 C
4. -0.570 C

For the reduction of silver ions with copper metal, the standard cell potential was found to be +0.46 V at 25 C. The value of standard Gibbs energy, G will be (F = 96500 C mol-1)

1. -89.0 kJ
2. -89.0 J
3. -44.5 kJ
4. -98.0 kJ

An increase in equivalent conductance of a strong electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to

1. increase in ionic mobility of ions
2. 100% ionisation of electrolyte at normal dilution
3. increase in both i.e., number of ions and ionic mobility of ions
4. increase in number of ions.

For the reaction N2O5(g) 2NO2(g) + 12O2(g) the value of rate of disappearance of N2O5 is given as 6.25 10-3 mol L-1 s-1. The rate of formation of NO2 and O2 is given respectively as

1. 6.25 10-3 mol L-1 s-1 and 6.25 10-3 mol L-1 s-1
2. 1.25 10-2 mol L-1 s-1 and 3.125 10-3 mol L-1 s-1
3. 6.25 10-3 mol L-1 s-1 and 3.125 10-3 mol L-1 s-1
4. 1.25 10-2 mol L-1 s-1 and 6.25 10-3 mol L-1 s-1

During the kinetic study of the reaction, 2A + B C + D, following results were obtained array|l|l|l|l| Run & [A]/ mol L-1 & [B]/ mol L-1 & Initial rate of formation \ & & & of D/ mol L-1 min-1 \ I. & 0.1 & 0.1 & 6.0 10-3 \ II. & 0.3 & 0.2 & 7.2 10-2 \ III. & 0.3 & 0.4 & 2.88 10-1 \ IV. & 0.4 & 0.1 & 2.40 10-2 \ array Based on the above data which one of the following is correct?

1. Rate = k[A]2[B]
2. Rate = k[A][B]
3. Rate = k[A]2[B]2
4. Rate = k[A][B]2

Which one of the following molecular hydrides acts as a Lewis acid?

1. NH3
2. H2O
3. B2H6
4. CH4

The tendency of BF3, BCl3 and BBr3 to behave as Lewis acid decreases in the sequence

1. BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3
2. BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
3. BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3
4. BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3

Oxidation states of P in H4P2O5, H4P2O6, H4P2O7 are respectively

1. +3, +5, +4
2. +5, +3, +4
3. +5, +4, +3
4. +3, +4, +5

The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following species is

1. Cl2O < ClO2 < ClO2-
2. ClO2 < Cl2O < ClO2-
3. Cl2O < ClO2- < ClO2
4. ClO2- < Cl2O < ClO2

Which of the following ions will exhibit colour in aqueous solutions?

1. La3+ (Z = 57)
2. Ti3+ (Z = 22)
3. Lu3+ (Z = 71)
4. Sc3+ (Z = 21)

Which of the following ions has electronic configuration [Ar]3d6? (At. nos. Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28)

1. Ni3+
2. Mn3+
3. Fe3+
4. Co3+

Which of the following pairs has the same size?

1. Fe2+, Ni2+
2. Zr4+, Ti4+
3. Zr4+, Hf4+
4. Zn2+, Hf4+

Which of the following complex ions is not expected to absorb visible light?

1. [Ni(CN)4]2-
2. [Cr(NH3)6]3+
3. [Fe(H2O)6]2+
4. [Ni(H2O)6]2+

Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d4 octahedral complex is

1. -1.8 0
2. -1.6 0 + P
3. -1.2 0
4. -0.6 0

The existence of two different coloured complexes with the composition of [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ is due to

1. linkage isomerism
2. geometrical isomerism
3. coordination isomerism
4. ionization isomerism.

Which one of the following complexes is not expected to exhibit isomerism?

1. [Ni(NH3)4(H2O)2]2+
2. [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
3. [Ni(NH3)2Cl2]
4. [Ni(en)3]2+

Which of the following alkaline earth metal sulphates has hydration enthalpy higher than the lattice enthalpy?

1. CaSO4
2. BeSO4
3. BaSO4
4. SrSO4

Property of the alkaline earth metals that increases with their atomic number

1. solubility of their hydroxides in water
2. solubility of their sulphates in water
3. ionization energy
4. electronegativity

Which one of the following compounds is a peroxide?

1. KO2
2. BaO2
3. MnO2
4. NO2

Which of the following structures represents neoprene polymer?

1. [-CH2- Cl |C=CH-CH2- ]n
2. [-CH2- Cl |CH- ]n
3. [-CH2- CN |CH- ]n
4. [- C6H5 |CH-CH2- ]n

AB crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice with edge length 'a' equal to 387 pm. The distance between two oppositely charged ions in the lattice is

1. 335 pm
2. 250 pm
3. 200 pm
4. 300 pm

Which one of the following is employed as a tranquilizer drug?

1. Promethazine
2. Valium
3. Naproxen
4. Mifepristone

Virus envelope is known as

1. capsid
2. virion
3. nucleoprotein
4. core

Single-celled eukaryotes are included in

1. protista
2. fungi
3. archaea
4. monera

Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH 2) habitats belong to the two groups

1. eubacteria and archaea
2. cyanobacteria and diatoms
3. protists and mosses
4. liverworts and yeasts

One of the free-living, anaerobic nitrogen-fixer is

1. Beijerinckia
2. Rhodospirillum
3. Rhizobium
4. Azotobacter

Membrane-bound organelles are absent in

1. Saccharomyces
2. Streptococcus
3. Chlamydomonas
4. Plasmodium

Algae have cell wall made up of:

1. cellulose, galactans and mannans
2. hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
3. pectins, cellulose and proteins
4. cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins

Male and female gametophytes are independent and free-living in

1. mustard
2. castor
3. Pinus
4. Sphagnum

Keel is characteristic of the flowers of

1. gulmohur
2. Cassia
3. Calotropis
4. bean

Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of

1. guava
2. plum
3. brinjal
4. cucumber

The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of China rose ( Hibiscus rosa-sinensis) is

1. monadelphous
2. diadelphous
3. polyandrous
4. polyadelphous

The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize is comparable to which part of the seed in other monocotyledons?

1. Cotyledon
2. Endosperm
3. Aleurone layer
4. Plumule

During mitosis, ER and nucleolus begin to disappear at

1. late prophase
2. early metaphase
3. late metaphase
4. early prophase

PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was discovered in photosynthesis of

1. bryophyte
2. gymnosperm
3. angiosperm
4. alga

C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants due to

1. higher leaf area
2. presence of larger number of chloroplasts in the leaf cells
3. presence of thin cuticle
4. lower rate of photorespiration

The energy-releasing metabolic process in which substrate is oxidised without an external electron acceptor is called

1. glycolysis
2. fermentation
3. aerobic respiration
4. photorespiration

Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of

1. gibberellin
2. phytochrome
3. cytokinins
4. auxin

Photoperiodism was first characterised in

1. tobacco
2. potato
3. tomato
4. cotton

Coiling of garden pea tendrils around any support is an example of

1. thigmotaxis
2. thigmonasty
3. thigmotropism
4. thermotaxis

Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from

1. synergids
2. maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
3. antipodal cells
4. diploid egg

Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called

1. xenogamy
2. geitonogamy
3. karyogamy
4. autogamy

Wind pollinated flowers are

1. small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains
2. small, producing large number of dry pollen grains
3. large producing abundant nectar and pollen
4. small, producing nectar and dry pollen

Which one of the following symbols and its representation, used in human pedigree analysis is correct –

1. [figure] = mating between relatives
2. [figure] = unaffected female
3. [figure] = unaffected male
4. [figure] = male affected

ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by the gene I. It has three alleles – IA, IB and i. Since there are three different alleles, six different genotypes are possible. How many phenotypes can occur –

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross –

1. Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
2. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
3. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations
4. Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones

The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by –

1. Pedigree analysis
2. Back cross
3. Test cross
4. Dihybrid cross

Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance?

1. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant, and the other recessive
2. Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such in F2 generation
3. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor
4. Factors occur in pairs

Which one of the following does not follow the central dogma of molecular biology ?

1. Mucor
2. HIV
3. Chlamydomonas
4. Pea

The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic code, is its being –

1. Specific
2. Degenerate
3. Ambiguous
4. Universal

Select the two correct statements out of the four (A–D) statements given below about lac operon. The correct statements are :

1. B and D
2. A and B
3. B and C
4. A and C

Infectious proteins are present in –

1. Viroids
2. Geminiviruses
3. Satellite viruses
4. Prions

Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals, vitamins and proteins is called –

1. Biofortification
2. Biomagnification
3. Micropropagation
4. Somatic hybridisation

Select the correct statement from the following:

1. Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in rumen of cattle
2. Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks of sewage treatment plant is a rich source of aerobic bacteria
3. Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is pure methane
4. Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal waste

A common biocontrol agent for the control of plant diseases is –

1. Bacillus thuringiensis
2. Trichoderma
3. Glomus
4. Baculovirus

The common nitrogen-fixer in paddy fields is –

1. Azospirillum
2. Frankia
3. Rhizobium
4. Oscillatoria

Which one of the following is not used in organic farming ?

1. Earthworm
2. Oscillatoria
3. Snail
4. Glomus

The figure given below is a diagrammatic representation of response of organisms to abiotic factors. What do a, b and c represent respectively – [figure]

1. (a) partial regulator, (b) regulator, (c) conformer
2. (a) conformer, (b) regulator, (c) partial regulator
3. (a) regulator, (b) conformer, (c) partial regulator
4. (a) regulator, (b) partial regulator, (c) conformer

Which one of the following is one of the characteristics of a biological community?

1. Mortality
2. Sex-ratio
3. Stratification
4. Natality

The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and the decomposers is called –

1. Standing crop
2. Net primary productivity
3. Gross primary productivity
4. Secondary productivity

Study the four statements (a–d) given below and select the two correct ones out of them – (a) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on grain are ecologically similar in being consumers (b) Predator starfish Pisaster helps in maintaining species diversity of some invertebrates (c) Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of prey species (d) Production of chemicals such as nicotine, strychnine by the plants are metabolic disorders The two correct statements are –

1. b and c
2. a and d
3. c and d
4. a and b

Which one of the following is an example of ex situ conservation ?

1. Sacred groves
2. Wildlife sanctuary
3. National park
4. Seed bank

Heartwood differs from sapwood in –

1. Having dead and non-conducting elements
2. Being susceptible to pests and pathogens
3. Presence of rays and fibres
4. Absence of vessels and parenchyma

Which one of the following is not a lateral meristem ?

1. Interfascicular cambium
2. Intercalary meristem
3. Intrafascicular cambium
4. Phellogen

The chief water conducting elements of xylem in gymnosperms are :

1. Fibres
2. Transfusion tissue
3. Vessels
4. Tracheids

The plasma membrane consists mainly of –

1. proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer
2. phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer
3. proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer
4. proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules

The main area of various types of activities of a cell is –

1. Cytoplasm
2. Plasma membrane
3. Nucleus
4. Mitochondrion

Which one of the following has its own DNA?

1. Dictyosome
2. Mitochondria
3. Peroxisome
4. Lysosome

Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cells is an effective transport pathway?

1. Endoplasmic reticulum
2. Plasmodesmata
3. Plasmalemma
4. Plastoquinones

Which stages of cell division do the following figures A and B represent respectively? [Figure]

1. A Prophase, B Anaphase
2. A Metaphase, B Telophase
3. A Telophase, B Metaphase
4. A Late anaphase, B Prophase

An element playing important role in nitrogen fixation is

1. molybdenum
2. copper
3. manganese
4. zinc

Which one of the following is not a micronutrient?

1. Molybdenum
2. Magnesium
3. Zinc
4. Boron

A renewable exhaustible natural resource is –

1. Forest
2. Minerals
3. Coal
4. Petroleum

dB is a standard abbreviation used for the quantitative expression of –

1. the dominant Bacillus in a culture
2. the density of bacteria in a medium
3. a certain pesticide
4. a particular pollutant

The two gases making highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases are –

1. CFCs and N2O
2. CO2 and N2O
3. CO2 and CH4
4. CH4 and N2O

One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus is

1. Octopus
2. Asterias
3. Ascidia
4. Fasciola

Which one of the following statements about all the four of Spongilla, leech, dolphin and penguin is correct?

1. Penguin is homoiothermic while the remaining three are poikilothermic.
2. Leech is a fresh water form while all others are marine.
3. Spongilla has special collared cells called choanocytes, not found in the remaining three.
4. All are bilaterally symmetrical.

Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic?

1. Flatworms
2. Sponges
3. Ctenophores
4. Corals

Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct?

1. Roundworms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates
2. Molluscs are acoelomates
3. Insects are pseudocoelomates
4. Flatworms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates

Listed below are four respiratory capacities (i – iv) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human adult. array|l|l|l| & Respiratory capacities & Respiratory volumes \ (i) & Residual volume & 2500 mL \ (ii) & Vital capacity & 3500 mL \ (iii) & Inspiratory reserve volume & 1200 mL \ (iv) & Inspiratory capacity & 4500 mL \ array Which one of the following is the correct matching of two capacities and volumes?

1. (ii) 2500 mL, (iii) 4500 mL
2. (iii) 1200 mL, (iv) 2500 mL
3. (iv) 3500 mL, (i) 1200 mL
4. (i) 4500 mL, (ii) 3500 mL

What is true about RBCs in humans?

1. They carry about 20-25 percent of CO2.
2. They transport 99.5 percent of O2.
3. They transport about 80 percent oxygen only and the rest 20 percent of it is transported in dissolved state in blood plasma.
4. They do not carry CO2 at all.

If due to some injury the chordae tendineae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?

1. The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down
2. The 'pacemaker' will stop working
3. The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium
4. The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced

Which two of the following changes (i – iv) usually tend to occur in the plain dwellers when they move to high altitudes (3,500 m or more)? (i) Increase in red blood cell size (ii) Increase in red blood cell production (iii) Increased breathing rate (iv) Increase in thrombocyte count Changes occurring are

1. (ii) and (iii)
2. (iii) and (iv)
3. (i) and (iv)
4. (i) and (ii)

Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?

1. Descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
2. Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3-.
3. Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules.
4. Ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes.

The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is synthesised

1. in kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver
2. in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys
3. in liver and also eliminated by the same through bile
4. in the liver, but eliminated mostly through kidneys

Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of a normal human skeleton?

1. Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by fibrous joint.
2. First vertebra is axis which articulates with the occipital condyles.
3. The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs.
4. Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh bone articulates.

The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in

1. hypothalamus
2. pons
3. cerebellum
4. thalamus

Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the secretion of which one of the following?

1. Aldosterone
2. Both androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone
3. Adrenaline
4. Cortisol

Low Ca++ in the body fluid may be the cause of

1. tetany
2. anaemia
3. angina pectoris
4. gout

Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

1. Glucagon – Beta cells (source)
2. Somatostatin – Delta cells (source)
3. Corpus luteum – Relaxin (secretion)
4. Insulin – Diabetes mellitus (disease)

Toxic agents present in food which interfere with thyroxine synthesis lead to the development of

1. toxic goitre
2. cretinism
3. simple goitre
4. thyrotoxicosis

Select the correct matching of a hormone, its source and function.

1. array|l|l|l| Hormone & Source & Function \ Vasopressin & Posterior pituitary & Increases loss of \ & & water through urine \ array
2. array|l|l|l| Hormone & Source & Function \ Norepinephrine & Adrenal medulla & Increases heart beat, \ & & rate of respiration and \ & & alertness \ array
3. array|l|l|l| Hormone & Source & Function \ Glucagon & Beta-cells of Islets of & Stimulates glycogenolysis \ & Langerhans & \ array
4. array|l|l|l| Hormone & Source & Function \ Prolactin & Posterior pituitary & Regulates growth \ & & of mammary glands \ & & and milk formation in \ & & females \ array

Sertoli cells are found in :

1. ovaries and secrete progesterone
2. adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline
3. seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ cells
4. pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin

Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from :

1. Testicular lobules to rete testis
2. Rete testis to vas deferens
3. Vas deferens to epididymis
4. Epididymis to urethra

Seminal plasma in human males is rich in

1. fructose and calcium
2. glucose and calcium
3. DNA and testosterone
4. ribose and potassium

The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month of pregnancy?

1. Fourth month
2. Fifth month
3. Sixth month
4. Third month

The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs

1. Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the Fallopian tube
2. Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm
3. Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum
4. in the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division

Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct?

1. Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in fertilisation
2. The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope facilitating fertilisation
3. Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the sperm towards the ovum
4. Acrosome serves no particular function

Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct?

1. It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
2. It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote
3. It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote
4. It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote

The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary is

1. Isthmus
2. Infundibulum
3. Cervix
4. Ampulla

In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube?

1. Zygote only
2. Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
3. Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
4. Embryo of 32 cell stage

The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for

1. transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother
2. detecting any genetic abnormality
3. detecting sex of the unborn foetus
4. artificial insemination

Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs) –

1. increase phagocytosis of sperms
2. prevent ovulation
3. make uterus unsuitable for implantation
4. suppress sperm motility

Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme?

1. 5′ —— CGTTCG —— 3′ 3′ —— ATGGTA —— 5′
2. 5′ —— GAATTC —— 3′ 3′ —— CTTAAG —— 5′
3. 5′ —— CACGTA —— 3′ 3′ —— CTCAGT —— 5′
4. 5′ —— GATATG —— 3′ 3′ —— CTACTA —— 5′

Darwin's finches are a good example of –

1. Convergent evolution
2. Connecting link
3. Industrial melanism
4. Adaptive radiation

Ringworm in humans is caused by :

1. Fungi
2. Viruses
3. Bacteria
4. Nematodes

Widal test is used for the diagnosis of –

1. Tuberculosis
2. Malaria
3. Typhoid
4. Pneumonia

Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS ?

1. The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers
2. AIDS patients are being fully cured cent per cent with proper care and nutrition
3. The HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person
4. Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection

Select the correct statement from the ones given below :

1. Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery
2. Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate
3. Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth
4. Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer

Which one of the following is used as vector for cloning genes into higher organisms ?

1. Retrovirus
2. Salmonella typhimurium
3. Rhizopus nigricans
4. Baculovirus

DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called –

1. Clone
2. Probe
3. Plasmid
4. Vector

Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which –

1. recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase
2. remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule
3. restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase
4. make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule

Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for –

1. Purification of the product
2. Availability of oxygen throughout the process
3. Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
4. Addition of preservatives to the product

Which of the following are used in gene cloning ?

1. Mesosomes
2. Nucleoids
3. Lomasomes
4. Plasmids

The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India has been developed for:

1. Enhancing shelf life
2. Insect-resistance
3. Drought-resistance
4. Enhancing mineral content

Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing –

1. transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac disease
2. animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power
3. transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans
4. transgenic Cow-Rosie which produces high fat milk for making ghee

Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are –

1. High yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran pests
2. High yield and resistance to bollworms
3. Long fibre and resistance to aphids
4. Medium yield, long fibre and resistance to beetle pests

An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice

1. gives high yield but has no characteristic aroma
2. does not require chemical fertilizers and growth hormones
3. is completely resistant to all insect pests and diseases of paddy
4. gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A

The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the category of :

1. Columnar epithelium
2. Connective tissue
3. Smooth muscle tissue
4. Squamous epithelium

Carrier ions like Na+ facilitate the absorption of substances like

1. amino acids and glucose
2. glucose and fatty acids
3. fatty acids and glycerol
4. fructose and some amino acids

If for some reason our goblet cells are nonfunctional, this will adversely affect

1. production of somatostatin
2. secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands
3. maturation of sperms
4. smooth movement of food down the intestine