NEET (UG) 2022 (Phase 2)

An energy of 484 J is spent in increasing the speed of a flywheel from 60 rpm to 360 rpm. The moment of inertia of the flywheel is :

1. 0.07 kg m2
2. 0.7 kg m2
3. 3.22 kg m2
4. 30.8 kg m2

Let R1 be the radius of the second stationary orbit and R2 be the radius of the fourth stationary orbit of an electron in Bohr's model. The ratio R1R2 is :

1. 4
2. 0.25
3. 0.5
4. 2

During a cloudy day, a primary and a secondary rainbow may be created, then the :

1. secondary rainbow is due to single internal reflection and is formed above the primary one.
2. primary rainbow is due to double internal reflection and is formed above the secondary one.
3. primary rainbow is due to double internal reflection and is formed below the secondary one.
4. secondary rainbow is due to double internal reflection and is formed above the primary one.

The reciprocal of resistance is :

1. conductance
2. reactance
3. mobility
4. conductivity

Two copper vessels A and B have the same base area but of different shapes. A takes twice the volume of water as that B requires to fill upto a particular common height. Then the correct statement among the following is :

1. Vessel B weighs twice that of A.
2. Pressure on the base area of vessels A and B is same.
3. Pressure on the base area of vessels A and B is not same.
4. Both vessels A and B weigh the same.

Match List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

The distance covered by a body of mass 5 g having linear momentum 0.3 kg m/s in 5 s is :

1. 0.3 m
2. 300 m
3. 30 m
4. 3 m

The distance between the two plates of a parallel plate capacitor is doubled and the area of each plate is halved. If C is its initial capacitance, its final capacitance is equal to

1. C4
2. 2C
3. C2
4. 4C

A closely packed coil having 1000 turns has an average radius of 62.8 cm. If current carried by the wire of the coil is 1 A, the value of magnetic field produced at the centre of the coil will be (permeability of free space = 4 10-7 H/m) nearly

1. 10-3 T
2. 10-1 T
3. 10-2 T
4. 102 T

The magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by B = 3 10-8 (1.6 103 x + 48 1010 t) j, then the associated electric field will be :

1. 9 (1.6 103 x + 48 1010 t) k V/m
2. 3 10-8 (1.6 103 x + 48 1010 t) i V/m
3. 3 10-8 (1.6 103 x + 48 1010 t) i V/m
4. 9 (1.6 103 x - 48 1010 t) k V/m

The restoring force of a spring with a block attached to the free end of the spring is represented by

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

A cricket ball is thrown by a player at a speed of 20 m/s in a direction 30 above the horizontal. The maximum height attained by the ball during its motion is (g = 10 m/s2)

1. 25 m
2. 5 m
3. 10 m
4. 20 m

Given below are two statements In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

A cell of emf 4 V and internal resistance 0.5 is connected to a 7.5 external resistance. The terminal potential difference of the cell is

1. 0.375 V
2. 3.75 V
3. 4.25 V
4. 4 V

An ideal gas follows a process described by the equation PV2 = C from the initial (P1, V1, T1) to final (P2, V2, T2) thermodynamic states, where C is a constant. Then

1. If P1 > P2 then V1 > V2
2. If P1 > P2 then T1 < T2
3. If V2 > V1 then T2 > T1
4. If V2 > V1 then T2 < T1

The shape of the magnetic field lines due to an infinite long, straight current carrying conductor is

1. a plane
2. a straight line
3. circular
4. elliptical

[figure] Identify the equivalent logic gate represented by the given circuit

1. NAND
2. OR
3. NOR
4. AND

The light rays having photons of energy 4.2 eV are falling on a metal surface having a work function of 2.2 eV. The stopping potential of the surface is

1. 6.4 V
2. 2 eV
3. 2 V
4. 1.1 V

Identify the function which represents a non-periodic motion.

1. ( t + /4)
2. e- t
3. t
4. t + t

An inductor of inductance 2 mH is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz ac source. Let the inductive reactance in the circuit is X1. If a 220 V dc source replace the ac source in the circuit, then the inductive reactance in the circuit is X2. X1 and X2 respectively are :

1. 0.628 , infinity
2. 6.28 , zero
3. 6.28 , infinity
4. 0.628 , zero

The ratio of the magnitude of the magnetic field and electric field intensity of a plane electromagnetic wave in free space of permeability 0 and permittivity 0 is (Given that c - velocity of light in free space)

1. 0 0c
2. c
3. 1c
4. c 0 0

The threshold frequency of a photoelectric metal is 0. If light of frequency 4 0 is incident on this metal, then the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons will be :

1. 4h 0
2. h 0
3. 2h 0
4. 3h 0

The equivalent resistance of the infinite network given below is : [figure]

1. (1 + 5 )
2. 2
3. (1 + 2 )
4. (1 + 3 )

If the screen is moved away from the plane of the slits in a Young's double slit experiment, then the :

1. linear separation of the fringes decreases
2. angular separation of the fringes increases
3. angular separation of the fringes decreases
4. linear separation of the fringes increase

If F = 2 i + j - k and r = 3 i + 2 j - 2 k, then the scalar and vector products of F and r have the magnitudes respectively as

1. 10, 2
2. 5, 3
3. 4, 5
4. 10, 2

The physical quantity that has the same dimensional formula as pressure is

1. Coefficient of viscosity
2. Force
3. Momentum
4. Young's modulus of elasticity

The effective capacitances of two capacitors are 3 and 16 , when they are connected in series and parallel respectively. The capacitance of two capacitors are :

1. 1.2 , 1.8
2. 10 , 6
3. 8 , 8
4. 12 , 4

After passing through a polariser a linearly polarised light of intensity I is incident on an analyser making an angle of 30 with that of the polariser. The intensity of light emitted from the analyser will be

1. 2I3
2. I2
3. I3
4. 3I4

In the diagram shown, the normal reaction force between 2 kg and 1 kg is (Consider the surface, to be smooth) : (Given g = 10 m s-2) [figure]

1. 10 N
2. 25 N
3. 39 N
4. 6 N

The incorrect statement about the property of a Zener diode is :

1. p and n regions of Zener diode are heavily doped
2. Zener voltage remains constant at breakdown
3. It is designed to operate under reverse bias
4. Depletion region formed is very wide

A gravitational field is present in a region and a mass is shifted from A to B through different paths as shown. If W1, W2 and W3 represent the work done by the gravitational force along the respective paths, then : [figure]

1. W1 < W2 < W3
2. W1 = W2 = W3
3. W1 > W2 > W3
4. W1 > W3 > W2

A standard filament lamp consumes 100 W when connected to 200 V ac mains supply. The peak current through the bulb will be :

1. 2 A
2. 0.707 A
3. 1 A
4. 1.414 A

The terminal velocity of a copper ball of radius 5 mm falling through a tank of oil at room temperature is 10 cm s-1. If the viscosity of oil at room temperature is 0.9 kg m-1 s-1, the viscous drag force is :

1. 4.23 10-6 N
2. 8.48 10-3 N
3. 8.48 10-5 N
4. 4.23 10-3 N

In a gravitational field, the gravitational potential is given by, V = - Kx (J/Kg). The gravitational field intensity at point (2, 0, 3) m is

1. + K4
2. + K2
3. - K2
4. - K4

The percentage error in the measurement of g is : (Given that g = 4 2 LT2, L = (10 0.1) cm, T = (100 1) s)

1. 7%
2. 2%
3. 5%
4. 3%

Two very long, straight, parallel conductors A and B carry current of 5 A and 10 A respectively and are at a distance of 10 cm from each other. The direction of current in two conductors is same. The force acting per unit length between two conductors is : ( 0 = 4 10-7 SI unit)

1. 1 10-4 N m-1 and is repulsive
2. 2 10-4 N m-1 and is attractive
3. 2 10-4 N m-1 and is repulsive
4. 1 10-4 N m-1 and is attractive

The magnetic field on the axis of a circular loop of radius 100 cm carrying current I = 2 A, at point 1 m away from the centre of the loop is given by :

1. 6.28 10-4 T
2. 3.14 10-7 T
3. 6.28 10-7 T
4. 3.14 10-4 T

Two rods one made of copper and other made of steel of same length and same cross sectional area are joined together. The thermal conductivity of copper and steel are 385 J s-1 K-1 m-1 and 50 J s-1 K-1 m-1 respectively. The free ends of copper and steel are held at 100 and 0 respectively. The temperature at the junction is, nearly :

1. 88.5
2. 12
3. 50
4. 73

The ratio of Coulomb's electrostatic force to the gravitational force between an electron and a proton separated by some distance is 2.4 1039. The ratio of the proportionality constant, K = 14 0 to the gravitational constant G is nearly (Given that the charge of the proton and electron each = 1.6 10-19 C, the mass of the electron = 9.11 10-31 kg, the mass of the proton = 1.67 10-27 kg) :

1. 10
2. 1020
3. 1030
4. 1040

The position-time (x - t) graph for positive acceleration is

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Six charges +q, -q, +q, -q, +q, and -q are fixed at the corners of a hexagon of side d as shown in the figure. The work done in bringing a charge q0 to the centre of the hexagon from infinity is ( 0 - permittivity of free space) [figure]

1. -q24 0 d (6 - 1 2 )
2. Zero
3. -q24 0 d
4. -q24 0 d (3 - 1 2 )

An astronomical refracting telescope is being used by an observer to observe planets in normal adjustment. The focal lengths of the objective and eye piece used in the construction of the telescope are 20 m and 2 cm respectively. Consider the following statements about the telescope : The correct statements are :

1. A, B and D only
2. A, B and C only
3. B, C and D only
4. C, D and A only

The magnetic flux linked to a circular coil of radius R is = 2t3 + 4t2 + 2t + 5 Wb The magnitude of induced emf in the coil at t = 5 s is

1. 192 V
2. 108 V
3. 197 V
4. 150 V

Three vessels of equal capacity have gases at the same temperature and pressure. The first vessel contains helium (monoatomic), the second contains fluorine (diatomic) and the third contains sulfur hexafluoride (polyatomic). The correct statement, among the following is :

1. The root mean square speed of sulfur hexafluoride is the largest
2. All vessels contain unequal number of respective molecules
3. The root mean square speed of molecules is same in all three cases
4. The root mean square speed of helium is the largest

An organ pipe filled with a gas at 27 resonates at 400 Hz in its fundamental mode. If it is filled with the same gas at 90 , the resonance frequency at the same mode will be

1. 512 Hz
2. 420 Hz
3. 440 Hz
4. 484 Hz

The sliding contact C is at one fourth of the length of the potentiometer wire (AB) from A as shown in the circuit diagram. If the resistance of the wire AB is R0, then the potential drop (V) across the resistor R is [figure]

1. 2V0 R2R0 + 3R
2. 4V0 R3R0 + 16R
3. 4V0 R3R0 + R
4. 2V0 R4R0 + R

Given below are two statements In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
2. Both statement I and statement II are correct
3. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
4. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

At any instant, two elements X1 and X2 have same number of radioactive atoms. If the decay constant of X1 and X2 are 10 and respectively, then the time when the ratio of their atoms becomes 1e respectively will be :

1. 15
2. 111
3. 19
4. 16

The collector current in a common base amplifier using n-p-n transistor is 24 mA. If 80% of the electrons released by the emitter is accepted by the collector, then the base current is numerically :

1. 3 mA and entering the base
2. 6 mA and leaving the base
3. 3 mA and leaving the base
4. 6 mA and entering the base

Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

The density of the solution is 2.15 g mL-1, then mass of 2.5 mL solution in correct significant figures is :

1. 53.75 g
2. 5375 10-3 g
3. 5.4 g
4. 5.38 g

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Two half cell reactions are given below. Co3+ + e- Co2+, E0 Co2+/Co3+ = -1.81 V 2Al3+ + 6e- 2Al(s), E0 Al/Al3+ = +1.66 V The standard EMF of a cell with feasible redox reaction will be :

1. -3.47 V
2. +7.09 V
3. +0.15 V
4. +3.47 V

Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

The correct order of first ionization enthalpy for the given four elements is :

1. C < F < N < O
2. C < N < F < O
3. C < N < O < F
4. C < O < N < F

Predict the order of reactivity of the following four isomers towards SN2 reaction. (I) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl (II) CH3CH2CH(Cl)CH3 (III) (CH3)2CHCH2Cl (IV) (CH3)3CCl

1. (IV) > (II) > (III) > (I)
2. (IV) > (III) > (II) > (I)
3. (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
4. (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)

Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Which of the following reactions is a part of the large scale industrial preparation of nitric acid?

1. Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + 2H2O [500 K, 9 bar]Pt 4HNO3 + Cu
2. NaNO3 + H2SO4 [500 K, 9 bar]Pt NaHSO4 + HNO3
3. 4NH3 + 5O2 (from air) [500 K, 9 bar]Pt 4NO + 6H2O
4. 4HPO3 + 2N2O5 [500 K, 9 bar]Pt 4HNO3 + P4O10

Na2B4O7 heat X + NaBO2 in the above reaction the product "X" is :

1. NaB3O5
2. H3BO3
3. B2O3
4. Na2B2O5

One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from 1 L to 10 L volume. U for this process is : (Use R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1)

1. 0 J
2. 1260 J
3. 2520 J
4. 5040 J

Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

0.01 M acetic acid solution is 1% ionised, then pH of this acetic acid solution is :

1. 1
2. 3
3. 2
4. 4

The half life of a first order reaction is 2000 years. If the concentration after 8000 years is 0.02 M, then the initial concentration was :

1. 0.04 M
2. 0.16 M
3. 0.32 M
4. 0.08 M

The product formed from the following reaction sequence is : [figure]

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

The decreasing order of boiling points of the following alkanes is : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. A > E > C > B > D
2. A > C > E > D > B
3. C > D > A > E > B
4. A > E > B > C > D

Decrease in size from left to right in actinoid series is greater and gradual than that in lanthanoid series due to

1. 5f orbitals have greater shielding effect
2. 4f orbitals are penultimate
3. 4f orbitals have greater shielding effect
4. 5f orbitals have poor shielding effect

Which of the following reactions is not an example for nucleophilic addition-elimination reaction?

1. CH3CHO + NH3 CH3CH=NH + H2O
2. CH3CHO + NaHSO3 CH3- H | OH |C-SO3Na
3. CH3CHO + NH2OH CH3CH=N-OH + H2O
4. CH3CHO + C6H5NHNH2 CH3CH=N-NHC6H5 + H2O

The product formed from the following reaction sequence is [figure]

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Fluorine is a stronger oxidising agent than chlorine because : Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given :

1. B and C only
2. A and B only
3. A and C only
4. A and D only

KH value for some gases at the same temperature 'T' are given : [figure] where KH is Henry's Law constant in water. The order of their solubility in water is :

1. HCHO < CH4 < CO2 < Ar
2. Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO
3. Ar < CH4 < CO2 < HCHO
4. HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar

Which of the following reactions is a decomposition redox reaction?

1. P4(s) + 3OH-(aq) + 3H2O(l) PH3(g) + 3H2PO2-(aq)
2. 2Pb(NO3)2(s) 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
3. N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)
4. Cl2(g) + 2OH-(aq) ClO-(aq) + Cl-(aq) + H2O(l)

What is the hybridization shown by C1 and C2 carbons, respectively in the given compound? OHC- 1CH=CH- 2CH2COOCH3

1. sp3 and sp3
2. sp2 and sp3
3. sp2 and sp2
4. sp3 and sp2

Match the reagents (List-I) with the product (List-II) obtained from phenol. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

The correct order of bond angles in the following compounds/species is :

1. CO2 < NH3 < H2O < +NH4
2. H2O < NH3 < +NH4 < CO2
3. H2O < +NH4 < NH3 < CO2
4. H2O < +NH4 = NH3 < CO2

Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

If first ionization enthalpies of elements X and Y are 419 kJ mol-1 and 590 kJ mol-1, respectively and second ionization enthalpies of X and Y are 3069 kJ mol-1 and 1145 kJ mol-1, respectively. Then correct statement is :

1. Both X and Y are alkaline earth metals
2. X is an alkali metal and Y is an alkaline earth metal
3. X is an alkaline earth metal and Y is an alkali metal
4. Both X and Y are alkali metals

The incorrect statement about denaturation of proteins is :

1. Uncoiling of the helical structure takes place
2. It results due to change of temperature and/or pH
3. It results in loss of biological activity of proteins
4. A protein is formed from amino acids linked by peptide bonds

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Which of the following is the most stable carbocation?

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Given below are two statements : In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Kp for the following reaction is 3.0 at 1000 K. CO2(g) + C(s) 2CO(g) What will be the value of Kc for the reaction at the same temperature? (Given : R = 0.083 L bar K-1 mol-1)

1. 3.6
2. 0.36
3. 3.6 10-2
4. 3.6 10-3

A vessel contains 3.2 g of dioxygen gas at STP (273.15 K and 1 atm pressure). The gas is now transferred to another vessel at constant temperature, where pressure becomes one third of the original pressure. The volume of new vessel in L is : (Given : molar volume at STP is 22.4 L)

1. 67.2
2. 6.72
3. 2.24
4. 22.4

Which one of the following reaction sequence is incorrect method to prepare phenol?

1. [figure] , oleum, NaOH, H3O+
2. Aniline, NaNO2 + HCl, H2O, heating
3. Cumene, O2, H3O+
4. [figure] , NaOH, STP condition

For a chemical reaction 4A + 3B 6C + 9D Rate of formation of C is 6 10-2 mol L-1 s-1 and rate of disappearance of A is 4 10-2 mol L-1 s-1. The rate of reaction and amount of B consumed in interval of 10 seconds, respectively will be :

1. 10 10-2 mol L-1 s-1 and 30 10-2 mol L-1
2. 1 10-2 mol L-1 s-1 and 30 10-2 mol L-1
3. 10 10-2 mol L-1 s-1 and 10 10-2 mol L-1
4. 1 10-2 mol L-1 s-1 and 10 10-2 mol L-1

Standard electrode potential for the cell with cell reaction Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s) is 1.1 V. Calculate the standard Gibbs energy change for the cell reaction. (Given F = 96487 C mol-1)

1. -200.27 J mol-1
2. -200.27 kJ mol-1
3. -212.27 kJ mol-1
4. -212.27 J mol-1

The products A and B in the following reaction sequence are : [figure]

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

The incorrect method for the synthesis of alkenes is

1. Treating vicinal dihalides with Zn metal
2. Treating of alkynes with Na in liquid NH3
3. Heating alkyl halides with alcoholic KOH
4. Treating alkyl halides in aqueous KOH solution

When electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 300 nm falls on the surface of a metal, electrons are emitted with the kinetic energy of 1.68 105 J mol-1. What is the minimum energy needed to remove an electron from the metal? (h = 6.626 10-34 J s, c = 3 108 m s-1, NA = 6.022 1023 mol-1)

1. 2.31 105 J mol-1
2. 2.31 106 J mol-1
3. 3.84 104 J mol-1
4. 3.84 10-19 J mol-1

The incorrect method to synthesize benzaldehyde is

1. [figure] , CH3MgBr, followed by H3O+
2. [figure] , H2, Pd-BaSO4
3. [figure] , DIBAL-H, followed by H2O
4. [figure] , CrO2Cl2 in CS2, followed by H3O+

Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Which among the following is a thermoplastic polymer?

1. Melamine polymer
2. Bakelite
3. Polythene
4. Urea-formaldehyde resin

Shown below are adsorption isotherms for a gas 'X' at temperatures T1, T2 and T3 : [figure] p and xm represent pressure and extent of adsorption, respectively. The correct order of temperatures for the given adsorption is :

1. T1 = T2 > T3
2. T1 > T2 > T3
3. T3 > T2 > T1
4. T1 = T2 = T3

The element used for welding metals with high melting points is

1. He
2. Cl2
3. H2
4. Ne

CaCl2 and Ca(OCl)2 are components of

1. Lime water
2. Gypsum
3. Portland cement
4. Bleaching powder

Four gas cylinders containing He, N2, CO2 and NH3 gases separately are gradually cooled from a temperature of 500 K. Which gas will liquefy first? (Given Tc in K – He : 5.3, N2 : 126, CO2 : 304.1 and NH3 : 405.5)

1. NH3
2. He
3. N2
4. CO2

Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

Which one of the following is not a calcination reaction?

1. CaCO3 + 2HCl CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
2. ZnCO3 ZnO + CO2
3. Fe2O3 . xH2O Fe2O3 + xH2O
4. CaCO3 . MgCO3 CaO + MgO + 2CO2

What fraction of Fe exists as Fe(III) in Fe0.96O ? (Consider Fe0.96O to be made up of Fe(II) and Fe(III) only)

1. 120
2. 112
3. 0.08
4. 116

Given below are two statements: In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Which stage of meiosis can last for months or years in the oocytes of some vertebrates?

1. Diakinesis
2. Leptotene
3. Pachytene
4. Diplotene

Give the correct descending order of organisms with reference to their estimated number found in Amazon forest. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. B > A > C > E > D
2. A > B > E > D > C
3. A > C > D > B > E
4. B > A > E > D > C

In lac operon, z gene codes for

1. Transacetylase
2. β-galactosidase
3. Permease
4. Repressor

The 5-C compound formed during TCA cycle is

1. Fumaric acid
2. α-ketoglutaric acid
3. Oxalosuccinic acid
4. Succinic acid

In meiosis, crossing over and exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes are catalyzed by the enzyme

1. Polymerase
2. Phosphorylase
3. Recombinase
4. Transferase

All successions irrespective of the habitat proceed to which type of climax community?

1. Edaphic
2. Xeric
3. Mesic
4. Hydrophytic

When one CO2 molecule is fixed as one molecule of triose phosphate, which of the following photochemically made, high energy chemical intermediates are used in the reduction phase?

1. 2 ATP + 2 NADPH
2. 1 ATP + 1 NADPH
3. 1 ATP + 2 NADPH
4. 2 ATP + 1 NADPH

The ability of plants to follow different pathways in response to environment leading to formation of different kinds of structures is called

1. Differentiation
2. Redifferentiation
3. Development
4. Plasticity

Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
2. (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
3. (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
4. (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)

Interfascicular cambium is present between

1. Secondary xylem and secondary phloem
2. Primary xylem and primary phloem
3. Pericycle and endodermis
4. Two vascular bundles

Which of the following growth regulators is an adenine derivative?

1. Abscisic acid
2. Auxin
3. Cytokinin
4. Ethylene

The chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by

1. Robert Brown
2. Thomas Morgan
3. Sutton and Boveri
4. Gregor Mendel

Which of the following statement is not correct?

1. The rhizome is thick, prostrate and branched
2. Rhizome is a condensed form of stem
3. The apical bud in rhizome always remains above the ground
4. The rhizome is aerial with no distinct nodes and internodes

The phenomenon by which the undividing parenchyma cells start to divide mitotically during plant tissue culture is called as

1. Secondary growth
2. Differentiation
3. Dedifferentiation
4. Redifferentiation

Match List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
2. (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
3. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
4. (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

The residual persistent part which forms the perisperm in the seeds of beet is

1. Integument
2. Calyx
3. Endosperm
4. Nucellus

The World Summit on sustainable development held in 2002 in Johannesburg, South Africa pledged for

1. Collection and preservation of seeds of different genetic strains of commercially important plants.
2. A significant reduction in the current rate of biodiversity loss.
3. Declaration of more biodiversity hotspots.
4. Increase in agricultural production.

The type of tissue commonly found in the fruit wall of nuts is :

1. Sclereid
2. Parenchyma
3. Collenchyma
4. Sclerenchyma

The pioneer species in a hydrarch succession are

1. Filamentous algae
2. Free-floating angiosperms
3. Submerged rooted plants
4. Phytoplanktons

Given below are two statements In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

The species that come to appear in bare area are called

1. Species of seral community
2. Pioneer species
3. Invasive species
4. Competitive species

Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium during secondary growth takes place in cells of

1. Pericycle
2. Epiblema
3. Cortex
4. Endodermis

Match List - I with List - II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
2. (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
3. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
4. (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

To ensure that only the desired pollens fall on the stigma in artificial hybridization process Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. A, D and E only
2. A, B and C only
3. B, C and D only
4. B, C and E only

Match List - I with List - II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
2. (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
3. (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
4. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)

The number of time(s) decarboxylation of isocitrate occurs during single TCA cycle is

1. Four
2. One
3. Two
4. Three

Match List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

In general the egg apparatus of embryo sac in angiosperm consists of

1. One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal cells, two Polar nuclei
2. One egg cell, two synergids, three antipodal cells, two Polar nuclei
3. One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal cells, three Polar nuclei
4. One egg cell, three synergids, two antipodal cells, two Polar nuclei

The Floral Diagram represents which one of the following families? [Figure]

1. Liliaceae
2. Fabaceae
3. Brassicaceae
4. Solanaceae

Primary proteins are also called as polypeptides because :

1. They can assume many conformations
2. They are linear chains
3. They are polymers of peptide monomers
4. Successive amino acids are joined by peptide bonds

Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Which type of substance would face difficulty to pass through the cell membrane?

1. Substance soluble in lipids
2. Substance with hydrophobic moiety
3. Substance with hydrophilic moiety
4. All substances irrespective of hydrophobic and hydrophilic moiety

What is the expected percentage of F2 progeny with yellow and inflated pod in dihybrid cross experiment involving pea plants with green coloured, inflated pod and yellow coloured constricted pod?

1. 9%
2. 100%
3. 56.25%
4. 18.75%

Match List - I with List - II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

If a female individual is with small round head, furrowed tongue, partially open mouth and broad palm with characteristic palm crease. Also the physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded. The karyotype analysis of such an individual will show :

1. Trisomy of chromosome 21
2. 47 chromosomes with XXY sex chromosomes
3. 45 chromosomes with XO sex chromosomes
4. 47 chromosomes with XYY sex chromosomes

Read the following statements and identify the characters related to the alga shown in the diagram : [Figure] Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. C, D and E only
2. A and B only
3. A, B and C only
4. A, C and D only

Match the List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
2. (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
3. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
4. (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)

Identify the correct sequence of events during Prophase I of meiosis: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, C, D, E, B
2. A, B, C, D, E
3. B, C, D, E, A
4. B, A, C, E, D

Which of the following pair represents free living nitrogen fixing aerobic bacteria?

1. Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus
2. Rhizobium and Frankia
3. Azotobacter and Beijernickia
4. Anabaena and Rhodospirillum

Frugivorous birds are found in large numbers in tropical forests mainly because of :

1. Temperature conducive for their breeding
2. Lack of niche specialisation
3. Higher annual rainfall
4. Availability of fruits throughout the year

Identify the correct statements regarding chemiosmotic hypothesis: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B, C and E only
2. A, B and E only
3. A, B and D only
4. B, C and D only

Match List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

Bivalent or Tetrad formation is a characteristic feature observed during

1. Chiasmata in zygotene stage
2. Synaptonemal complex in zygotene stage
3. Chiasmata in Diplotene stage
4. Synaptonemal complex in Pachytene stage

The amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis is called

1. Net primary production
2. Secondary production
3. Primary production
4. Gross primary production

Select the incorrect match regarding the symbols used in the Pedigree analysis:

1. [figure] – Parent with male child affected with disease
2. [figure] – Sex unspecified
3. [figure] – Affected individual
4. [figure] – Consanguineous mating

If the pH in lysosomes is increased to alkaline, what will be the outcome?

1. Lysosomal enzymes will be more active
2. Hydrolytic enzymes will function more efficiently
3. Hydrolytic enzymes will become inactive
4. Lysosomal enzymes will be released into the cytoplasm

Pathogenic bacteria gain resistance to antibiotics due to changes in their :

1. Nucleoid
2. Cosmids
3. Plasmids
4. Nucleus

Mad cow disease in cattle and Cr Jacob disease in humans are due to infection by .

1. Prion
2. Bacterium
3. Virus
4. Viroid

Western Ghats have a large number of plants and animal species that are not found anywhere else. Which of the following term is used to notify such species?

1. Vulnerable species
2. Threatened species
3. Keystone species
4. Endemic species

Two butterfly species are competing for the same nectar of a flower in a garden. To survive and coexist together, they may avoid competition in the same garden by :

1. Predating on each other
2. Feeding at the same time
3. Choosing different foraging patterns
4. Increasing time spent on attacking each other

If DNA contained sulfur instead of phosphorus and proteins contained phosphorus instead of sulfur, what would have been the outcome of Hershey and Chase experiment?

1. Radioactive phosphorus in bacterial cells
2. No radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells
3. Both radioactive sulfur and phosphorus in bacterial cells
4. Radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells

Given below are two statements: In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

With respect to metaphase, which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Chromosomes lie at the equator of the cell
2. Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope takes place
3. Chromosomes are highly condensed
4. Metaphase chromosomes are made up of four sister chromatids held together by centromere

Against the codon 5' UAC 3', what would be the sequence of anticodon on tRNA?

1. 5' GUA 3'
2. 5' AUG 3'
3. 5' ATG 3'
4. 5' GTA 3'

Which of the following are true about the taxonomical aid 'key'? Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A, C, D and E only
2. A, B and C only
3. B, C and D only
4. A, B, C and E only

A normal girl, whose mother is haemophilic marries a male with no ancestral history of haemophilia. What will be the possible phenotypes of the offspring? Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. B and D only
2. A and B only
3. B and C only
4. A and D only

In the enzyme which catalyses the breakdown of: 2H2O2 2H2O + O2 the prosthetic group is :

1. Niacin
2. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
3. Haem
4. Zinc

If A and C make 30% and 20% of DNA, respectively, what will be the percentage composition of T and G?

1. T : 20%, G : 20%
2. T : 20%, G : 30%
3. T : 30%, G : 20%
4. T : 30%, G : 30%

When a carrier protein facilitates the movement of two molecules across the membrane in same direction, it is called

1. Symport
2. Uniport
3. Transport
4. Antiport

Which of the following protects nitrogenase inside the root nodule of a leguminous plant?

1. Glutamate dehydrogenase
2. Catalase
3. leg haemoglobin
4. Transaminase

The ascent of xylem sap in plants is mainly accomplished by the

1. root pressure
2. size of the stomatal aperture
3. distribution of stomata on the upper and lower epidermis
4. cohesion and adhesion between water molecules

Which of the following can be expected if scientists succeed in introducing apomictic gene into hybrid varieties of crops?

1. There will be segregation of the desired characters only in the progeny
2. Polyembryony will be seen and each seed will produce many plantlets
3. Seeds of hybrid plants will show longer dormancy
4. Farmers can keep on using the seeds produced by the hybrids to raise new crop year after year

Why CNG is considered better fuel than diesel? Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1. C, D and E only
2. A, B, C and E only
3. A, C and D only
4. A, B, D and E only

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Select the incorrect statement with respect to inbreeding of animals.

1. It exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.
2. It is used for evolving pure lines in cattle.
3. It helps in accumulation of superior genes and elimination of less desirable genes.
4. It decreases homozygosity.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Separation of DNA fragments is done by a technique known as

1. Gel electrophoresis
2. Polymerase Chain Reaction
3. Recombinant technology
4. Southern blotting

The enzyme (a) is needed for isolating genetic material from plant cells and enzyme (b) for isolating genetic material from fungus. Choose the correct pair of options from the following :

1. (a) Cellulase (b) Lipase
2. (a) Cellulase (b) Protease
3. (a) Cellulase (b) Chitinase
4. (a) Chitinase (b) Lipase

Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

Which of the following animals has three chambered heart?

1. Pteropus
2. Scoliodon
3. Hippocampus
4. Chelone

Which of the following types of epithelium is present in the bronchioles and Fallopian tubes?

1. Stratified squamous epithelium
2. Simple squamous epithelium
3. Simple columnar epithelium
4. Ciliated epithelium

Which of the following is not an Intra Uterine Device?

1. Progestasert
2. Progestogens
3. Multiload 375
4. Lippes loop

Which of the following reasons is mainly responsible for graft rejection in transplantation of organs?

1. Cell-mediated response
2. Inability of recipient to differentiate between ‘self’ and ‘non-self’ tissues/cells
3. Humoral immune response only
4. Auto-immune response

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Choose the correct statement about a muscular tissue

1. Smooth muscles are multinucleated and involuntary.
2. Skeletal muscle fibres are uninucleated and found in parallel bundles.
3. Intercalated discs allow the cardiac muscle cells to contract as a unit.
4. The walls of blood vessels are made up of columnar epithelium.

Identify the region of human brain which has pneumotaxic centre that alters respiratory rate by reducing the duration of inspiration.

1. Cerebrum
2. Medulla
3. Pons
4. Thalamus

According to the sliding filament theory:

1. The actin filaments slide away from A-band resulting in shortening of sarcomere.
2. Actin and myosin filaments slide over each other to increase the length of the sarcomere.
3. Length of A-band does not change
4. I-band increases in length.

Panspermia, an idea that is still a favourite for some astronomers, means:

1. Transfer of spores as unit of life from other planets to Earth
2. Creation of life from dead and decaying matter
3. Creation of life from chemicals
4. Origin of sperm in human testes

Which of the following statements are correct with respect to vital capacity? Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1. A and E only
2. B, D and E only
3. A, C and D only
4. A, C and E only

How many secondary spermatocytes are required to form 400 million spermatozoa?

1. 400 million
2. 50 million
3. 100 million
4. 200 million

Arrange the components of mammary gland. (from proximal to distal). Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1. E C D B A
2. C A D E B
3. B C E D A
4. C E A D B

Match List-I with List-II regarding the organs of Cockroach: Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
2. (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
3. (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
4. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Choose the correct statements: Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and E only
2. A, B and D only
3. B, C and E only
4. A, C and D only

Select the incorrect statements with respect to Cyclostomes: Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A and D only
2. A and B only
3. B and C only
4. B and D only

A unique vascular connection between the digestive tract and liver is called.

1. Hepato-cystic system
2. Hepato-pancreatic system
3. Hepatic portal system
4. Renal portal system

Milk of transgenic ‘Cow Rosie’ was nutritionally more balanced product for human babies than natural cow milk because it contained:

1. Human enzyme Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)
2. Human protein α-1-antitrypsin
3. Human alpha-lactalbumin
4. Human insulin-like growth factor

Gout is a type of disorder which leads to:

1. Weakening of bones due to low calcium level
2. Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals
3. Weakening of bones due to decreased bone mass
4. Inflammation of joints due to cartilage degeneration

Which of the following methods is not commonly used for introducing foreign DNA into the plant cell?

1. Bacteriophages
2. Agrobacterium mediated transformation
3. Gene gun
4. ‘Disarmed pathogen’ vectors

Arrange the following formed elements in the decreasing order of their abundance in blood in humans: Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A, C, B, D, E
2. C, A, B, E, D
3. C, B, A, E, D
4. D, E, B, A, C

IUDs are small objects made up of plastic or copper that are inserted in the uterine cavity. Which of the following statements are correct about IUDs ? Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. D only
2. A, D and E only
3. B and C only
4. B and D only

Select the correct statement regarding mutation theory of evolution.

1. Large differences due to mutations arise gradually in a population
2. This theory was proposed by Alfred Wallace
3. Variations are small directional changes
4. Single step large mutation is a cause of speciation

Excretion in cockroach is performed by all, EXCEPT:

1. Hepatic caeca
2. Uricose glands
3. Malpighian tubules
4. Fat body

Select the correct statements. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1. A, B and C only
2. A, B and E only
3. C, D and E only
4. B, C and D only

Refer to the following statements for agarose-gel electrophoresis: Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1. B, C and D only
2. A and B only
3. A, B and C only
4. A, B and D only

Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Role of enamel is to

1. Give basic shape to the teeth
2. Connect crown of tooth with its root
3. Masticate the food
4. Form bolus

Choose the incorrect enzymatic reaction:

1. Dipeptides Dipeptidases Amino acids
2. Maltose Maltase Glucose + Fructose
3. Sucrose Sucrase Glucose + Fructose
4. Lactose Lactase Glucose + Galactose